Sedatives and hypnotics are drugs which act as:

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Pharmacology Assessment 2 ATI Capstone Questions

Question 1 of 5

Sedatives and hypnotics are drugs which act as:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Sedatives and hypnotics are drugs that act as depressants on the central nervous system. They slow down brain activity, leading to relaxation, drowsiness, and in higher doses, inducing sleep. These drugs are commonly used to reduce anxiety, promote sleep, or induce anesthesia. Therefore, the correct classification for sedatives and hypnotics is as depressants.

Question 2 of 5

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Theophylline, a bronchodilator, treats COPD but has a narrow therapeutic range (10-20 mcg/mL). Monitoring theophylline levels prevents toxicity (e.g., seizures, tachycardia) or subtherapeutic dosing, ensuring efficacy. Sodium , glucose , and platelets aren't directly impacted. Blood level checks align with theophylline's pharmacokinetics'hepatic metabolism, variable clearance'critical in COPD where respiratory support hinges on precision. This focus prevents adverse outcomes, making A the key value to monitor for safe, effective therapy.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse notes in the patient™s medication orders that the patient will be starting anticoagulant therapy. What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of anticoagulant therapy is to prevent the formation of blood clots or thrombus. Anticoagulants work by inhibiting the coagulation cascade, which ultimately prevents the blood from clotting too easily. By preventing the formation of clots, anticoagulant therapy helps reduce the risk of conditions such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, stroke, and heart attack, which are all associated with blood clot formation. Anticoagulant therapy does not stabilize or dissolve existing clots but rather focuses on preventing new clots from forming. Dilating the vessel around a clot is not the primary purpose of anticoagulant therapy.

Question 4 of 5

Codeine sulfate is prescribed to a client with a severe back pain. Which of the following side effect is associated with this medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Codeine sulfate, a narcotic analgesic, commonly causes constipation as a side effect. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the central nervous system, which can slow down gastrointestinal motility, leading to constipation. Clients taking codeine sulfate should be advised to increase their fluid intake, eat high-fiber foods, and possibly use stool softeners to prevent or alleviate constipation. Monitoring for constipation and providing appropriate interventions are essential to improve the client's comfort and prevent complications.

Question 5 of 5

A 60-year-old epileptic woman who has been on the same dose of phenytoin for 20 years develops cerebellar ataxia with nystagmus. Her other medication consists of folic acid, hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and furosemide prescribed by the GP for ankle swelling and mild hypertension. She is referred to A&E. Routine investigations reveal an elevated plasma creatinine, normal plasma potassium and calcium, hypoalbuminaemia and proteinuria. The phenytoin concentration is 15 mg/L (therapeutic reference range 10-20 mg/L). A diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome is made and the cerebellar signs are attributed to phenytoin toxicity. Which of the following is likely to be correct?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Phenytoin toxicity (ataxia, nystagmus) occurs despite a ‘normal' total plasma level (15 mg/L) due to nephrotic syndrome's hypoalbuminemia. Normally, phenytoin is 90% protein-bound, with 10% free (active). Low albumin increases the free fraction (e.g., to 20%), raising CNS exposure despite a therapeutic total level. Creatinine doesn't typically interfere with phenytoin assays; they're reliable unless specific lab issues exist. Furosemide doesn't alter the blood-brain barrier for phenytoin; no evidence supports this. Oestrogen in HRT doesn't directly enhance phenytoin's CNS toxicity; it may affect metabolism, but not here. Cerebrovascular events don't fit the drug-related context. The increased free fraction explains toxicity, necessitating free level monitoring in hypoalbuminemia.

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