ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 2 Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
Sedatives and hypnotics are drugs which act as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sedatives and hypnotics are drugs that belong to the class of central nervous system depressants. These drugs work by slowing down the activity of the brain and the central nervous system, leading to a calming or sedative effect. They are commonly prescribed to induce sleep (hypnotics) or reduce anxiety (sedatives) by depressing the excitability of nerve cells. This property makes them effective in producing sedation, relaxation, and sleep in individuals. Therefore, the correct classification for sedatives and hypnotics is as depressants.
Question 2 of 5
A 23-year-old female patient presents at the clinic with a migraine headache. What beta-adrenergic blocking agent might the physician prescribe for the prophylactic prevention of future migraine headaches?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension, angina pectoris, idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis, supraventricular tachycardia, tremor; prevention of reinfarction after myocardial infarction; adjunctive therapy in pheochromocytoma; prophylaxis of migraine headache; and management of situational anxiety. The other options do not treat or prevent migraine headaches. The nurse should understand the indications for propranolol to ensure safe and effective administration.
Question 3 of 5
A patient requires a high dose of a new antihypertensive medication because the new medication has a significant first-pass effect. What does this mean?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first-pass effect refers to the extensive metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. This reduces the bioavailability of the drug, necessitating a higher dose to achieve therapeutic effects. The medication does not need to pass through the bloodstream multiple times (A), nor is it primarily excreted in the kidneys (B). The drug’s effectiveness is not related to cumulative dosing (D).
Question 4 of 5
A client is receiving methocarbamol (Robaxin) as an adjunct to physical therapy for the relief of painful muscle discomfort. Which of the following is not true regarding the use of the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Methocarbamol can cause urine discoloration, and rapid intravenous administration may lead to hypotension and bradycardia. However, the use of cold or allergy medicines does not lessen its side effects. The parenteral form is contraindicated in patients with liver damage due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. This statement is incorrect and not supported by the drug's pharmacology.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is instructing a client regarding carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease. The nurse tells the client which of the following indicates an overdose of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An overdose of carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) can cause excessive dopaminergic stimulation, leading to dyskinesias or difficulty performing voluntary movements. Increased blood pressure, decreased appetite, and black tarry stools are not typical signs of overdose. Therefore, difficulty with voluntary movement is the correct indicator of overdose.