ATI RN
Biological Basis of Behavior Questions
Question 1 of 5
School phobia is usually treated by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because returning the child to school immediately with family support helps them confront their fears gradually, reducing anxiety over time. This approach exposes the child to the school environment in a supportive manner, promoting desensitization. Choice B only provides information but doesn't address the child's emotional distress. Choice C may exacerbate the child's anxiety by singling them out, making them feel more self-conscious. Choice D may create dependency and hinder the child's ability to cope independently.
Question 2 of 5
What is the best intervention to teach the client when she feels the need to starve?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because approaching the nurse and talking out her feelings is a proactive and healthy intervention. By discussing her emotions with a healthcare professional, the client can receive support and guidance to address the underlying causes of her urge to starve. This intervention promotes open communication and helps the client develop coping strategies to manage her feelings in a constructive manner. Option A is incorrect as allowing the client to starve can lead to serious health consequences and does not address the root of the issue. Option B may provide temporary distraction but does not address the emotional aspect of the urge to starve. Option D involves seeking external validation rather than addressing the client's emotional needs directly.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following should be included in the health teachings among clients receiving Valium:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid taking CNS depressants like alcohol. Valium is a central nervous system (CNS) depressant, so combining it with other CNS depressants like alcohol can lead to dangerous levels of sedation, respiratory depression, and even overdose. It is crucial to educate clients to avoid alcohol while taking Valium to prevent these serious complications. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: There are no restrictions in activities - This is incorrect because clients taking Valium should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness or coordination due to the sedative effects of the medication. C: Limit fluid intake - This is incorrect as there is no specific need to limit fluid intake while taking Valium unless advised by a healthcare provider for other medical reasons. D: Any beverage like coffee may be taken - This is incorrect as caffeine in beverages like coffee can potentially interact with Valium and affect its effectiveness, so it is important to provide guidance on caffeine intake while on Valium.
Question 4 of 5
A 45-year-old woman with a history of depression tells a nurse in her doctor's office that she has difficulty with sexual arousal and is fearful that her husband will have an affair. Which of the following factors would the nurse identify as least significant in contributing to the client's sexual difficulty?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Education and work history. The nurse would identify this as least significant in contributing to the client's sexual difficulty because education and work history do not directly impact sexual arousal or fear of infidelity in a marriage. Rationale: 1. B: Medication used - Medications can have side effects that affect sexual arousal and libido. 2. C: Physical health status - Physical health can impact sexual function and overall well-being. 3. D: Quality of spousal relationship - Relationship dynamics can significantly influence sexual arousal and fear of infidelity. In summary, the client's education and work history are less likely to directly affect her sexual difficulties compared to medication, physical health, and the quality of her spousal relationship.
Question 5 of 5
A client with bipolar disorder, manic type, exhibits extreme excitement, delusional thinking, and command hallucinations. Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with bipolar disorder, manic type, exhibiting extreme excitement, delusional thinking, and command hallucinations is "D: Risk for other-directed violence." This is the most critical because it addresses the immediate safety concern of potential harm to others due to the client's altered mental state. Anxiety (A) may be present but is secondary to the risk of violence. Impaired social interaction (B) and disturbed sensory-perceptual alteration (C) are important but not as urgent as ensuring the safety of others. It is crucial to prioritize interventions to prevent harm to others in this scenario.