ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Sara S. is a 41-year-old patient who has just had a bone marrow transplant. The AGACNP knows that which medication will be used to decrease her risk of graft-versus-host reaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cyclosporine. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used post-bone marrow transplant to prevent graft-versus-host disease. It works by inhibiting T-cell activation and proliferation, reducing the risk of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin (A) is used for passive immunization, not prevention of graft-versus-host reaction. Prophylactic antibiotics (C) are used to prevent infections post-transplant, not graft-versus-host disease. Systemic corticosteroids (D) may be used to treat graft-versus-host disease but are not the first-line prophylactic medication.
Question 2 of 5
Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (>90%). Mr. Mettenberger had a reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year, indicating a high recurrence risk. Spontaneous pneumothorax recurrence rates are high, especially in young males. Factors such as smoking history, gender, and prior occurrences contribute to increased risk. Mr. Mettenberger's cessation of smoking reduces but does not eliminate the risk. Choices A, B, and C are too low, given his history and current situation. Choice D is the most appropriate due to the high likelihood of recurrence based on his medical history and risk factors.
Question 3 of 5
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preservation of sensorineural hearing. In cholesteatoma, surgery aims to remove the lesion and prevent further damage to the ossicles and inner ear structures. Preserving sensorineural hearing is crucial to maintain auditory function post-surgery. A: Production of a dry ear is important to prevent recurrence, but not the primary goal. C: Debridement of infection is necessary, but the main aim is to address the cholesteatoma itself. D: Restoration of the tympanic membrane may be needed but is not the primary objective in cholesteatoma surgery.
Question 4 of 5
A patient who has been in the intensive care unit for 17 days develops hyponatremic hyperosmolality. The patient weighs 132 lb (59.9 kg), is intubated, and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The serum osmolality is 320 mOsmL kg H2O. Clinical signs include tachycardia and hypotension. The adult-gerontology acute care nurse practitioners initial treatment is to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: reduce serum sodium concentration by infusing a 0.45% sodium chloride solution. In hyponatremic hyperosmolality, the primary goal is to correct the low serum sodium levels. A 0.45% sodium chloride solution is hypotonic, which helps to slowly correct the serum sodium concentration without causing rapid shifts in osmolality. Infusing a hypotonic solution will gradually increase the serum sodium levels, addressing the underlying issue. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the low serum sodium levels, which is essential in treating hyponatremic hyperosmolality. Infusing a 5% dextrose in 0.2% sodium chloride solution (Choice A) or a 5% dextrose in water solution (Choice D) would not correct the low sodium levels. Replenishing volume with a 0.9% sodium chloride solution (Choice C) would not directly
Question 5 of 5
The AGACNP is receiving report from the recovery room on a patient who just had surgical resection for pheochromocytoma. He knows that which class of drugs should be available immediately to manage hypertensive crisis, a possible consequence of physical manipulation of the adrenal medulla?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why D is correct: 1. Arteriolar dilators such as sodium nitroprusside are used to manage hypertensive crisis by rapidly reducing blood pressure. 2. Pheochromocytoma surgery can result in catecholamine release, causing severe hypertension. 3. Arteriolar dilators act directly on blood vessels to lower blood pressure quickly. 4. Alpha-adrenergic antagonists (A) can worsen hypotension, beta-adrenergic antagonists (B) can lead to unopposed alpha-adrenergic effects, and intravenous vasodilators (C) may not act rapidly enough.