Sanitary control is applied to monitor the quality of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because sanitary control is crucial for monitoring the quality of a wide range of essential services to ensure public health and safety. Food safety, drinking water quality, cleanliness in restaurants, hygiene in healthcare settings, and transportation systems all fall under the purview of sanitary control. Therefore, option A is the most comprehensive and accurate choice. Option B is incorrect because it does not include monitoring restaurants, health care services, and transport, which are important aspects of sanitary control. Option C is incorrect as it excludes transportation, an essential area that requires sanitary monitoring. Option D is incorrect as it does not cover health care services, which are critical for ensuring public health and safety.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. This enzyme is required for replicating viral RNA due to its ability to catalyze the synthesis of RNA using an RNA template. Reverse transcriptase (A) is used to transcribe RNA into DNA, not replicate viral RNA. DNA polymerase (B) is used for replicating DNA, not RNA. Ligase (D) is involved in joining DNA fragments, not in replicating viral RNA. Therefore, RNA-dependent RNA polymerase is the only enzyme that specifically performs the function required for replicating viral RNA.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because bacteriocins are substances with protein nature, not polysaccharides. Bacteriocins are antimicrobial peptides that kill bacterial cells, mainly those of closely related species or other strains of the same species. Polysaccharides are not typically involved in bacteriocin activity. Therefore, option C is false. Options A, B, and D are true statements supported by the nature and function of bacteriocins.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite that causes foul-smelling diarrhea with trophozoites having two nuclei and flagella in stool microscopy. The presence of flagella and two nuclei is characteristic of Giardia lamblia. Entamoeba histolytica (Choice B) causes amoebic dysentery with trophozoites containing ingested RBCs. Trichomonas vaginalis (Choice C) is a sexually transmitted protozoan causing vaginitis with a distinctive pear-shaped trophozoite. Balantidium coli (Choice D) is a ciliated protozoan causing diarrhea with trophozoites containing a single nucleus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 96% ethanol. In Gram's staining method, after applying gentian violet, Lugol's solution, and aqueous fuchsin, the next step is to use a decolorizing agent like 96% ethanol to wash away the excess stain from the Gram-negative bacteria. This step is crucial as it helps differentiate between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria based on their cell wall properties. The other choices are incorrect because sulfuric acid is not used in Gram's staining method, methylene blue is typically used in other staining techniques like the simple stain, and carbolic fuchsin is not a standard reagent in the Gram's staining process.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The optochin sensitivity test is used to differentiate Pneumococcal (Streptococcus pneumoniae) from other streptococci. Optochin sensitivity is a characteristic feature of Pneumococcal, as it inhibits its growth. The test involves placing optochin discs on a culture plate and observing the zone of inhibition around the disc for Pneumococcal. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Staphylococci, and Group A streptococci do not exhibit optochin sensitivity, making them incorrect choices. In summary, the optochin sensitivity test is specific to Pneumococcal, making choice B the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. 1. Gram-positive cocci suggest a staphylococcal species. 2. Catalase-positive indicates it belongs to the Staphylococcus genus. 3. Coagulase-negative rules out Staphylococcus aureus. 4. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common cause of infections in immunocompromised patients. Summary: - B: Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive. - C: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive diplococci. - D: Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. 1. Escherichia coli can produce endotoxin due to its lipopolysaccharide component. 2. Salmonella enterica also produces endotoxin as part of its cell wall structure. 3. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known to produce endotoxin as well. Therefore, all of these bacteria are capable of producing endotoxin, which can trigger an excessive immune response leading to septic shock. Other choices are incorrect because they do not cover all the bacteria mentioned in the question that are capable of producing endotoxin.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Clostridium tetani, Staphylococcus aureus, and Escherichia coli are all capable of producing exotoxins. Exotoxins are proteins released by bacteria that can cause damage to the host. Clostridium tetani produces tetanospasmin, causing tetanus. Staphylococcus aureus produces toxins like enterotoxin and toxic shock syndrome toxin-1. Escherichia coli can produce Shiga toxin and heat-labile toxin. Therefore, all three bacteria listed can produce exotoxins, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not encompass all the bacteria capable of producing exotoxins.