ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Romy is diagnosed with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) a rapidly growing type of cancer. He and his family were shocked when told by the doctor that the patient will just undergo palliative treatment. Which nursing action is MOST APPROPRIATE?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the case of Romy being diagnosed with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) and undergoing palliative treatment, the most appropriate nursing action is to focus on providing relief from symptoms. Palliative care aims to improve the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses by managing their symptoms, such as pain, shortness of breath, nausea, and other side effects of treatment. As the cancer is advanced and the goal is not curative treatment but rather to keep the patient comfortable, symptom management becomes a priority to ensure Romy's physical comfort and well-being during this difficult time. Providing relief from symptoms is crucial in palliative care to help enhance the patient's quality of life and ensure they are as comfortable as possible.
Question 2 of 9
The patient with diagnosis of schizophrenia who has been taking Clozapine will inform the patients family that the positive effect of this drug is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication primarily used in the treatment of schizophrenia. One of the positive effects of Clozapine is the reduction of psychotic symptoms experienced by the patient, such as hallucinations (not hearing loss). Clozapine is effective in managing both positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking) and negative symptoms (apathy, social withdrawal, lack of motivation) of schizophrenia. It is known for its efficacy in reducing hallucinations and other psychotic symptoms, helping the patient to lead a more stable and functional life.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision. Tonometry reveals elevated intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision, which is characteristic of glaucoma. The elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) on tonometry further supports a diagnosis of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type of glaucoma and typically presents insidiously with a slow progression of vision loss. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open but becomes less efficient over time, leading to increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage. This results in peripheral visual field loss. Closed-angle glaucoma, on the other hand, presents more acutely with sudden eye pain, redness, and blurred vision due to a sudden increase in intraocular pressure from a blocked drainage angle. Age-related macular degeneration and diabetic retinopathy typically do not present with elevated IOP or peripheral visual field loss.
Question 4 of 9
Mr. Steve is brought to the medical ward. the next day, he wants to know about his illness. The nurse on duty replied,'You don't need to know your diagnosis'. Which of the following rights of the patient is violated? Right to_____.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The right being violated in this scenario is the right to obtain from his physician complete current information concerning his diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis. Patients have the right to be fully informed about their health status and to understand the details of their condition, treatment options, and likely outcomes. Withholding this information can prevent the patient from participating in their own care decisions and can violate their autonomy and right to make informed choices about their health.
Question 5 of 9
Which communication technique should Nurse Cris employ in order to successfully capture the details of the meeting?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nurse Cris should employ the communication technique of summarizing to successfully capture the details of the meeting. Summarizing involves condensing the information provided into a concise and organized form, which would help Nurse Cris remember and retain the key points discussed during the meeting. By summarizing the details, Nurse Cris can ensure that no important information is missed and can also confirm understanding by reflecting back the main points discussed. This technique promotes effective communication by enhancing clarity and reinforcing comprehension.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is admitted with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which cardiac biomarker is most specific for myocardial injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Troponin is the most specific cardiac biomarker for myocardial injury. Troponin I and Troponin T are proteins released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle, making them highly indicative of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within a few hours of cardiac injury, peak within 24-48 hours, and can remain elevated for up to 2 weeks. Troponin is considered the gold standard biomarker for the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction due to its high specificity and sensitivity for cardiac injury. In contrast, Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) and myoglobin are also used in diagnosing myocardial infarction but are less specific than troponin. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is primarily used in heart failure diagnosis and management, and its levels are not specific to myocardial injury.
Question 7 of 9
Falls are one of the leader environmental hazards reported in health facilities. One of the MOST common occurrences that precipitate a patient fall is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Leaving the side rails down is one of the most common occurrences that can lead to a patient fall. Side rails are important safety measures designed to prevent patients from falling out of bed. When the side rails are left down, the patient is at a higher risk of accidentally rolling out of bed and falling. It is crucial for healthcare providers to always ensure that the side rails are up and secure to help prevent patient falls.
Question 8 of 9
The ability of a screening test to distinguish correctly between persons with and without a disease is knows as _________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Validity refers to the extent to which a test accurately measures what it is intended to measure. In the context of screening tests for diseases, validity is crucial in assessing whether the test can correctly distinguish between individuals who have the disease (true positives) and those who do not have the disease (true negatives). This includes the ability to minimize false positives (incorrectly identifying someone as having the disease) and false negatives (incorrectly identifying someone as not having the disease). Therefore, when assessing the ability of a screening test to distinguish correctly between persons with and without a disease, we are essentially evaluating its validity.
Question 9 of 9
A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute myocardial infarction (MI) with ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram (ECG). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's MI?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) presenting with ST-segment elevation on ECG, the healthcare team should prioritize performing emergent coronary angiography for revascularization. This intervention, also known as primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), involves opening up the blocked coronary artery responsible for the MI. Timely reperfusion of the affected artery is crucial in reducing myocardial damage and improving outcomes in acute MI patients. PCI is considered the preferred method for revascularization in patients with ST-segment elevation MI, as it has been shown to be more effective and associated with better outcomes compared to fibrinolytic therapy.