ATI RN
medical microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
RNA viruses belong to which of the following types according to the Baltimore classification system?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: III, IV, V. 1. RNA viruses belong to Group III of the Baltimore classification system because their genetic material is single-stranded RNA. 2. They are also categorized under Group IV as they use reverse transcriptase to replicate their genetic material. 3. Finally, RNA viruses fall under Group V as they have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not include all the correct groups that RNA viruses belong to according to the Baltimore classification system.
Question 2 of 9
Legionellosis has the following clinical forms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Legionellosis is caused by the Legionella bacteria. Step 2: Legionellosis has two main clinical forms - Legionnaires disease and Pontiac fever. Step 3: Legionnaires disease presents with severe pneumonia symptoms, while Pontiac fever is a milder flu-like illness. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Legionnaires disease and Pontiac fever. Summary: - Choice B (Skin and intestinal form) is incorrect as Legionellosis primarily affects the lungs. - Choice C (Lymphatic, lung, and intestinal forms) is incorrect as it does not accurately represent the clinical forms of Legionellosis. - Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as Legionellosis does have specific clinical forms.
Question 3 of 9
The laboratory for especially dangerous infections conducts microscopic examination of pathological material from a patient with suspected plague. The sample was stained by Burri-Gins technique. What property of the causative agent can be identified by this technique?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Burri-Gins staining technique is used to identify the presence of capsules around bacteria. Capsules are protective structures that some bacteria produce to evade the immune system. This technique stains the capsule, making it visible under a microscope. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Capsule formation. Incorrect: B: Spore formation - Spores are not typically identified using the Burri-Gins staining technique. C: Acid resistance - This property is not specifically identified by Burri-Gins staining. D: Alkali resistance - This property is not specifically identified by Burri-Gins staining.
Question 4 of 9
Brown algae are commonly referred to as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phaeophyta. Brown algae are commonly referred to as Phaeophyta because they contain brown pigments like fucoxanthin. Rhodophyta (B) refers to red algae, Chrysophyta (C) to golden algae, and D repeats the same term as A. Therefore, A is the correct choice based on the distinctive pigments present in brown algae.
Question 5 of 9
Before a surgery the patient was prescribed a synthetic antiprotozoal drug for prevention of wound infection. The prescribed drug is highly effective against Helicobacter pylori. Name this drug:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Metronidazole is a synthetic antiprotozoal drug commonly used for wound infection prevention. 2. It is highly effective against Helicobacter pylori, a bacterium that causes stomach ulcers. 3. Metronidazole works by disrupting DNA structure in bacteria, leading to their death. 4. Chingamin (Chloroquine) is an antimalarial drug, not effective against Helicobacter pylori. 5. Doxycycline hydrochloride is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not specifically for H. pylori. 6. Aciclovir is an antiviral drug used for herpes infections, not effective against H. pylori. Summary: Metronidazole is the correct answer as it is specifically effective against H. pylori and commonly used for wound infection prevention. Other choices are incorrect as they target different types of infections.
Question 6 of 9
Which of these is an early symptom of rabies
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the symptoms mentioned (short period of depression, nausea, restlessness) can be early signs of rabies. Rabies typically presents with a variety of non-specific symptoms in the early stages, including behavioral changes such as depression and restlessness, as well as gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea. Therefore, it is important to consider the combination of these symptoms collectively rather than individually when suspecting rabies. Choices A, B, and C alone may not definitively indicate rabies, but when seen together, they should raise suspicion and prompt further evaluation and testing for rabies.
Question 7 of 9
Which bacteria is responsible for causing the disease known as syphilis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema pallidum. This bacterium is responsible for causing syphilis due to its unique spiral shape and ability to penetrate mucous membranes. It is transmitted through sexual contact or from mother to fetus. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia, and Escherichia coli is a common bacterium in the gastrointestinal tract. Syphilis is distinct due to its characteristic symptoms and stages, making Treponema pallidum the correct choice.
Question 8 of 9
Saddle nose is characteristic of which of the following congenital infections?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Saddle nose is a condition where the bridge of the nose collapses, a characteristic feature of congenital syphilis. This occurs due to inflammation and destruction of cartilage. Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. CMV, Rubella, and Toxoplasmosis do not typically cause saddle nose. CMV can result in hearing loss, Rubella can lead to cataracts and heart defects, and Toxoplasmosis may cause hydrocephalus or chorioretinitis.
Question 9 of 9
A 32 y.o. man is divorced, has an irregular sexual life. He complains of falling out of hair in the region of eyelashes, eyebrows, scalp. Objectively: diffuse alopecia is observed, eyebrow margin is absent, eyelashes are stair-like (Pinkus' sign). What examination should be carried out first of all?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wasserman test, IFT. The patient's symptoms of diffuse alopecia and Pinkus' sign are suggestive of secondary syphilis. The Wasserman test and Immunofluorescence Test (IFT) are used to detect antibodies against Treponema pallidum, the bacterium causing syphilis. This would confirm or rule out syphilis as the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms. Choice B (T.pallidum Immobilization Test) is similar to the Wasserman test but less commonly used. Choice C (Detection of the nasal mucous membrane for M.leprae) is irrelevant as leprosy does not present with the described symptoms. Choice D (Consultation of neuropathist) is premature without ruling out syphilis first. Thus, the Wasserman test, IFT should be the initial examination to investigate the likely cause of the patient's symptoms.