Rhinorrhea, lacrimation, chills, gooseflesh, hyperventilation, hyperthermia, mydriasis, muscular aches, vomiting, diarrhea, anxiety, and hostility are effects of:

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Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

Rhinorrhea, lacrimation, chills, gooseflesh, hyperventilation, hyperthermia, mydriasis, muscular aches, vomiting, diarrhea, anxiety, and hostility are effects of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Abstinence syndrome. Abstinence syndrome, also known as withdrawal syndrome, refers to the array of physical and psychological symptoms that occur when a person abruptly stops using a substance to which they have developed a dependence, such as opioids. Rhinorrhea, lacrimation, chills, gooseflesh, hyperventilation, hyperthermia, mydriasis, muscular aches, vomiting, diarrhea, anxiety, and hostility are classic symptoms of opioid withdrawal. These symptoms arise due to the body's response to the sudden absence of the opioids, which it has become accustomed to. Option A) Tolerance refers to the body's reduced response to a drug over time, leading to the need for higher doses to achieve the same effect. While tolerance can lead to increased drug consumption, it does not directly cause the cluster of symptoms described. Option B) Opioid overdosage would present with different symptoms such as respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, and loss of consciousness, rather than the withdrawal symptoms listed in the question. Option C) Drug interactions between opioid analgesics and sedative-hypnotics could potentially lead to additive effects or adverse reactions, but the symptoms listed are not indicative of such interactions. Educationally, understanding the symptoms of abstinence syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals working with patients who have opioid use disorder or are undergoing opioid withdrawal. Recognizing these symptoms promptly can guide appropriate interventions and support for individuals experiencing withdrawal, contributing to better patient outcomes and safety.

Question 2 of 5

Select the antiseizure drug with an analgesic component of effect:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Carbamazepine. Carbamazepine is an antiseizure medication that also possesses analgesic properties, making it an effective treatment option for conditions such as trigeminal neuralgia and diabetic neuropathy. Option B) Ethosuximide is primarily used to treat absence seizures and does not have significant analgesic properties. Option C) Phenytoin is an antiseizure medication but does not have analgesic effects. Option D) Clonazepam is also primarily used as an antiseizure medication and for anxiety disorders, without significant analgesic properties. Educationally, understanding the dual pharmacological effects of certain medications like Carbamazepine is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when treating patients with comorbid conditions. This knowledge ensures appropriate medication selection based on the patient's clinical presentation, ultimately optimizing therapeutic outcomes and minimizing potential adverse effects.

Question 3 of 5

Tardive dyskinesia is the result of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Hyperactive dopaminergic state in the presence of dopamine blockers. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements, often seen as a side effect of long-term use of dopamine-blocking medications such as antipsychotics. These medications block dopamine receptors, leading to an increase in dopaminergic activity to compensate, which can result in hyperactivity and dysregulation of dopaminergic pathways, ultimately causing tardive dyskinesia. Option A) Degeneration of dopaminergic and cholinergic fibers is incorrect because tardive dyskinesia is not primarily caused by degeneration of these fibers but rather by the dysregulation of dopaminergic pathways. Option C) Degeneration of histaminergic fibers is incorrect as histaminergic fibers are not primarily involved in the pathophysiology of tardive dyskinesia. Option D) Supersensitivity of cholinergic receptors in the caudate-putamen is incorrect as cholinergic receptors are not the primary target in the development of tardive dyskinesia associated with dopamine blockade. Understanding the pathophysiology of tardive dyskinesia is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those prescribing antipsychotic medications, as it highlights the importance of monitoring patients for potential adverse effects and considering alternative treatment options to minimize the risk of developing this debilitating condition.

Question 4 of 5

Orthostatic hypotension can occur as a result of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a sudden drop in blood pressure that occurs when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Alpha adrenoreceptor blockade. Alpha adrenoreceptor blockers, such as certain antihypertensive medications, can lead to vasodilation and a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance, which can result in orthostatic hypotension. Option A) The central action of phenothiazines is incorrect because phenothiazines primarily act on dopamine receptors in the central nervous system and are not directly related to alpha adrenoreceptor blockade. Option B) Inhibition of norepinephrine uptake mechanisms is incorrect because this mechanism is more associated with medications like tricyclic antidepressants, which can also lead to orthostatic hypotension but not through alpha adrenoreceptor blockade. Educationally, understanding the mechanisms of orthostatic hypotension is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially when prescribing medications that can potentially lead to this condition. Recognizing the effects of different drug classes on blood pressure regulation is vital in providing safe and effective patient care, particularly in the context of pharmacology across the lifespan.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following statements is correct for lithium?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pharmacology, lithium is commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. The correct answer, option B, "Decrease catecholamine-related activity," is accurate because lithium exerts its therapeutic effects by reducing the activity of catecholamines such as norepinephrine and dopamine. This action helps stabilize mood and prevent manic episodes in individuals with bipolar disorder. Option A, "Stimulate dopamine and beta-adrenergic receptors," is incorrect because lithium actually decreases the release of dopamine and does not directly stimulate dopamine or beta-adrenergic receptors. Option C, "Stimulate the development of dopamine receptor supersensitivity," is incorrect as lithium does not lead to the development of dopamine receptor supersensitivity. Option D, "Decrease cholinergic activity," is incorrect because lithium's primary mechanism of action does not involve the cholinergic system. Understanding the pharmacological actions of lithium is crucial for healthcare professionals when managing patients with bipolar disorder. By knowing how lithium works, healthcare providers can monitor for potential side effects, drug interactions, and therapeutic efficacy. This knowledge is essential for safe and effective patient care, highlighting the importance of accurate pharmacological knowledge in clinical practice.

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