Resident microflora is found in

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microbiology an introduction test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Resident microflora is found in

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: urethra. Resident microflora refers to the normal, beneficial bacteria that inhabit a specific area of the body without causing harm. The urethra is one of the locations where resident microflora are commonly found. These bacteria play a vital role in maintaining a healthy balance and preventing harmful pathogens from colonizing the urethra. Blood (A), lung (B), and cerebro-spinal fluid (D) are not typical locations for resident microflora as these areas are usually sterile or have very limited microbial presence to prevent infections.

Question 2 of 9

A patient with a severe case of pneumonia had sputum stained using the Gram method. The smear revealed Gram-positive cocci arranged in pairs with a capsule. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and is characterized by being Gram-positive cocci arranged in pairs with a capsule, as described in the question. The presence of a capsule is a key characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae, distinguishing it from the other choices. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is a Gram-positive cocci, but it typically forms clusters, not pairs. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a Gram-negative rod, not a Gram-positive cocci. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is a Gram-positive cocci, but it does not typically present with a capsule in the same way Streptococcus pneumoniae does.

Question 3 of 9

What clinical specimen can be analysed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D because all three options (A, B, and C) can be analyzed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. Genital ulcer secretions can reveal the presence of pathogens causing STIs, lymph node punctate can indicate systemic infection, and serum can be tested for specific STI antibodies. Therefore, all these clinical specimens are essential for a comprehensive diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect as they individually represent important specimens used in the diagnosis process.

Question 4 of 9

Pili are also called:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: microvilli. Pili are hair-like structures found on the surface of some bacteria, while microvilli are microscopic cellular projections that increase surface area for absorption in cells like intestinal cells. Pili are involved in bacterial adhesion, while microvilli are important for nutrient absorption. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Incorrect choices: A: Fimbriae are short, thin appendages found on the surface of some bacteria, mainly used for adhesion. C: Cilia are hair-like structures found on the surface of some eukaryotic cells, often involved in movement or sensory functions. D: Flagella are long, whip-like appendages used for bacterial motility.

Question 5 of 9

The primary target of beta-lactam antibiotics is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary target of beta-lactam antibiotics is cell wall synthesis. These antibiotics inhibit enzymes called penicillin-binding proteins, which are essential for building the bacterial cell wall. By disrupting cell wall synthesis, beta-lactam antibiotics weaken the cell wall, leading to bacterial cell lysis and death. Protein synthesis (Choice A), DNA replication (Choice B), and folic acid synthesis (Choice D) are not directly targeted by beta-lactam antibiotics, making them incorrect choices.

Question 6 of 9

During bacteriological examination of the purulent discharge obtained from a postoperative wound an inoculation on meat infusion agar has been performed. The inoculation has resulted in large colorless mucous colonies that in 24 hours with exposure to sunlight developed green-blue pigmentation and smell of honey or jasmine. Bacterioscopy revealed gram-negative lophotrichea. What bacterial culture is contained in purulent discharge?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium known for its green-blue pigmentation and sweet, fruity odor. The large colorless mucous colonies that develop green-blue pigmentation and honey or jasmine smell point towards Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The bacterioscopy revealing gram-negative lophotrichea further supports this identification. Proteus vulgaris and Klebsiella osaenae do not typically exhibit the described characteristics. Streptomyces griseus is a soil bacterium known for its antibiotic production and is not commonly associated with wound infections.

Question 7 of 9

A patient with severe abdominal pain had a stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that produce gas in nutrient broth. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus vulgaris. This is because Proteus species are non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that produce gas in nutrient broth. They are known to cause severe abdominal pain due to their ability to invade the intestinal mucosa. A: Salmonella enterica is a lactose-fermenting organism and typically does not produce gas in nutrient broth. B: Shigella dysenteriae is a lactose-negative organism but does not produce gas in nutrient broth. C: Escherichia coli is a lactose-fermenting organism and does not typically produce gas in nutrient broth. In summary, the presence of non-lactose-fermenting, gas-producing Gram-negative rods points towards Proteus vulgaris as the most likely causative agent of the severe abdominal pain.

Question 8 of 9

UN volunteers have arrived in Nigeria to assist the locals in aftermath of earthquakes. What drug should they prescribe for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Primaquine. Primaquine is used for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale. It is effective in preventing the relapse of these malaria species by eliminating the liver forms of the parasites. Chingamin (A) is not a commonly used drug for malaria prophylaxis. Pyrantel (B) is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not malaria. Pyrimethamine (Chloridinum) (C) is primarily used in combination with sulfadoxine for treating uncomplicated malaria, not for chemoprophylaxis.

Question 9 of 9

A child presented with foul-smelling diarrhea. Stool microscopy revealed trophozoites with two nuclei and flagella. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite that causes foul-smelling diarrhea. The trophozoites of Giardia lamblia have two nuclei and flagella, which are characteristic features seen on stool microscopy. The presence of these specific features helps differentiate Giardia lamblia from the other options. Entamoeba histolytica (B) typically presents with one nucleus and lacks flagella. Trichomonas vaginalis (C) is a sexually transmitted parasite with a different morphology. Balantidium coli (D) is a ciliated parasite, not flagellated like Giardia lamblia.

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