Renin plays a role in blood pressure regulation by

Questions 29

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

clinical skills exam questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

Renin plays a role in blood pressure regulation by

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because renin activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade. Renin is released by the kidneys in response to low blood pressure or low sodium levels. It acts on angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme. Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction, leading to increased blood pressure, and stimulates aldosterone release, promoting sodium and water retention. Choice B is incorrect because renin does not suppress angiotensin production; it actually initiates the process. Choice C is incorrect because renin's action leads to increased sodium reabsorption by stimulating aldosterone release. Choice D is incorrect because renin does not inhibit aldosterone release; it promotes it as part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade.

Question 2 of 9

In determining the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine is obtained. If a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible,

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because if a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible, a standardized formula can be used to estimate the GFR. This is typically done using the patient's serum creatinine level, age, sex, and race. It is a validated method when direct measurement is not feasible. A: Incorrect. It is still possible to estimate GFR using formulas when 24-hour urine collection is not possible. B: Incorrect. BUN alone is not sufficient to accurately determine renal function. C: Incorrect. BUN/Creatinine ratio is not a direct measure of GFR and may be influenced by other factors.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the left flank area, and is evaluating the patient’s urinalysis results. The nurse should become concerned when

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine indicates kidney damage, as these are not normally found in urine. A: Creatinine levels should be similar in blood and urine for proper kidney function. B: Sodium and chloride are normal components of urine. C: Uric acid levels can vary in urine and serum. Therefore, D is the correct answer as it signals potential kidney injury.

Question 4 of 9

Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. CRRT removes solutes and water slowly to avoid hemodynamic instability. 2. Slow removal better tolerates fluid and electrolyte shifts in critically ill patients. 3. Unlike intermittent hemodialysis, CRRT provides continuous, gentle therapy. 4. Choice A is incorrect as both CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis use a hemofilter. 5. Choice B is incorrect as CRRT does not provide faster solute and water removal. 6. Choice C is incorrect as CRRT allows for diffusion to occur, albeit at a slower rate. Summary: Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) removes solutes and water slowly to prevent hemodynamic instability, making it a gentler and more continuous process compared to intermittent hemodialysis. The other choices are incorrect as CRRT does use a hemofilter, does not provide faster removal, and still allows for diffusion to occur.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following is a high-priority nursing diagnosis for both diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid volume deficient. Both diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome can lead to severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Addressing fluid volume deficiency is crucial to stabilize the patient's condition. Choice A is not the priority as the main concern is the fluid imbalance, not activity intolerance. Hyperthermia (choice C) may be present but is not the primary concern compared to fluid volume deficit. Impaired nutrition (choice D) is not the immediate priority in these emergency situations. In summary, maintaining fluid balance is essential to manage both conditions effectively.

Question 6 of 9

Acute adrenal crisis is caused by

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: deficiency of corticosteroids. Acute adrenal crisis is caused by a sudden and severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone, which are essential corticosteroids produced by the adrenal glands. Without these hormones, the body cannot regulate blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and respond to stress adequately. Acute renal failure (choice A) does not directly lead to adrenal crisis. High doses of corticosteroids (choice C) can suppress the adrenal glands but do not cause acute adrenal crisis. Overdose of testosterone (choice D) does not impact the production of cortisol and aldosterone, thus not causing acute adrenal crisis.

Question 7 of 9

Renin plays a role in blood pressure regulation by

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because renin activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade. Renin is released by the kidneys in response to low blood pressure or low sodium levels. It acts on angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme. Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction, leading to increased blood pressure, and stimulates aldosterone release, promoting sodium and water retention. Choice B is incorrect because renin does not suppress angiotensin production; it actually initiates the process. Choice C is incorrect because renin's action leads to increased sodium reabsorption by stimulating aldosterone release. Choice D is incorrect because renin does not inhibit aldosterone release; it promotes it as part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade.

Question 8 of 9

The patient is complaining of severe flank pain when he tries to urinate. His urinalysis shows sediment and crystals along with a few bacteria. Using this information along with the clinical picture, the nurse realizes that the patient’s condition is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal. The presence of sediment, crystals, and bacteria in the urinalysis indicates an issue within the kidneys themselves. The flank pain suggests renal involvement. Prerenal would involve issues before the kidneys, such as inadequate blood flow. Postrenal would involve issues after the kidneys, such as urinary tract obstruction. Not renal related is incorrect as the symptoms and urinalysis findings clearly point to a renal issue.

Question 9 of 9

The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's lungs. In rhabdomyolysis, muscle breakdown releases myoglobin which can cause kidney damage. Mannitol is given to prevent kidney damage by promoting diuresis. However, mannitol can also cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema. Therefore, assessing the patient's lungs is crucial to monitor for signs of fluid overload and prevent complications. A: Assessing the patient's hearing is not directly related to the management of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration. C: Decreasing IV fluids after administering a diuretic like mannitol can lead to inadequate fluid resuscitation and worsening kidney injury. D: Giving extra doses before radiological contrast agents is not necessary in the context of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days