Renin plays a role in blood pressure regulation by

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Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

Renin plays a role in blood pressure regulation by

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because renin activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade, which ultimately leads to vasoconstriction, increased blood pressure, and aldosterone release to increase sodium and water reabsorption. Renin does not suppress angiotensin production (B), decrease sodium reabsorption (C), or inhibit aldosterone release (D), as these actions would counteract its role in blood pressure regulation.

Question 2 of 9

To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best initial action by the nurse is to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most reliable method to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement in the trachea. This method detects exhaled CO2, indicating proper tube placement in the trachea. It is a quick and efficient way to confirm placement without delay, reducing the risk of complications. A: Auscultating for bilateral breath sounds is not as reliable because breath sounds may be heard even if the tube is misplaced. B: Obtaining a portable chest x-ray is not the best initial action as it takes time and delays confirming tube placement. C: Observing chest movement may not provide conclusive evidence of proper tube placement and can lead to misinterpretation. In summary, using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most accurate and efficient method to verify correct endotracheal tube placement compared to the other options.

Question 3 of 9

The primary care provider orders the following mechanica l ventilation settings for a patient who weighs 75 kg and whose spontaneous respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min. What arterial blood gas abnormality may occur if the patient continues taob ibrbe.c otamc/thesyt pneic at these ventilator settings? Settings: Tidal volume: 600 mL (8 mL per kg) FiO 2: 0.5 Respiratory rate: 14 breaths/min Mode assist/control Positive end-expiratory pressure: 10 cm H O

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory acidosis may occur if the patient continues at these ventilator settings. Respiratory acidosis happens when the lungs cannot remove enough of the carbon dioxide (CO2) produced by the body. In this case, the low respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min may not be sufficient to adequately remove CO2, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This results in a decrease in blood pH, causing respiratory acidosis. Summary of other choices: A: Metabolic acidosis - Not the correct answer as the ventilator settings are more likely to affect the respiratory system rather than the metabolic system. B: Metabolic alkalosis - Not the correct answer as the ventilator settings are not related to causing an increase in blood pH, which is characteristic of metabolic alkalosis. D: Respiratory alkalosis - Not the correct answer as the low respiratory rate would not lead to excessive elimination of CO2, causing alkalosis.

Question 4 of 9

Which nursing strategies help the patient to feel safe in the critical care setting? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because allowing family members to remain at the bedside can provide emotional support and comfort to the patient, helping them feel safe in the critical care setting. Family presence can also facilitate communication and understanding between the healthcare team and the patient. Choice B is incorrect because consulting with the charge nurse before making patient care decisions may not directly contribute to the patient feeling safe. Choice C is incorrect because providing informal conversation about work-related topics may not address the patient's need for safety and security in the critical care setting. Choice D is incorrect because explaining how to communicate for assistance is important for patient care but may not directly contribute to the patient's sense of safety in the critical care setting.

Question 5 of 9

Which statement reflects adherence to current recommendations concerning open visitation policies?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it reflects patient-centered care by involving patients and families in decision-making. Collaborating with them on visitation preferences promotes a supportive environment. Choice A restricts animal visitation, not addressing human visitors. Choice B limits visitation during specific times, not individualized. Choice D imposes restrictions based on age, not on patient/family preferences. Therefore, Choice C is the most aligned with current recommendations for open visitation policies.

Question 6 of 9

A hospice patient develops a pressure ulcer despite proper repositioning. What should the nurse include in the care plan?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because implementing more aggressive wound care strategies is essential for managing pressure ulcers effectively. This includes proper wound cleaning, debridement, and dressing changes to promote healing. Adequate hydration and nutrition (choice B) are important but may not directly address the pressure ulcer. Discussing prognosis and expected outcomes (choice C) is important but may not directly impact wound healing. Encouraging increased physical activity (choice D) may be contraindicated due to the patient's condition.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following factors predispose the critically ill patient to pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inability to communicate. Critically ill patients often experience pain and anxiety due to their inability to effectively communicate their needs and discomfort. This can lead to unaddressed pain and increased anxiety levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while invasive procedures, monitoring devices, and preexisting conditions can contribute to pain and anxiety in critically ill patients, they are not factors that directly predispose patients to these issues. It is the lack of communication that significantly hinders the ability to address and manage pain and anxiety effectively in these patients.

Question 8 of 9

A patient in the ICU has recently been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Before being discharged, this patient will require detailed instructions on how to manage her diet, how to self-inject insulin, and how to handle future diabetic emergencies. Which nurse competency is most needed in this situation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Facilitation of learning. In this scenario, the nurse needs to effectively educate the patient on managing her diet, insulin injections, and handling emergencies. Facilitation of learning involves assessing the patient's learning needs, providing relevant information, demonstrating skills, and evaluating understanding. This competency is crucial for promoting patient education and empowerment in managing their condition. A: Clinical judgment involves making decisions based on assessment data, which is important but not the primary focus in this situation. B: Advocacy and moral agency involve standing up for patients' rights and values, which is important but not as directly relevant to the patient's education needs. C: Caring practices involve showing empathy and compassion, which are essential but not the main competency required for educational purposes in this case.

Question 9 of 9

Which statement regarding ethical concepts is true?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because a surrogate is indeed a competent adult designated to make healthcare decisions for an incapacitated person. This individual is typically chosen by the person themselves through a legal document like a healthcare proxy. This ensures that someone trusted can make important decisions when the person is unable to do so. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a living will and healthcare proxy serve different purposes, a signed donor card does not guarantee organ donation in the event of brain death (medical criteria are also required), and a persistent vegetative state is different from brain death (brain death implies irreversible cessation of brain function while a vegetative state involves some level of brain function).

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