ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Rehabilitation plans for Mr. Gabatan;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer B: Rehabilitation plans for Mr. Gabatan should be considered and planned for early in his care to optimize his recovery and quality of life. Planning early allows for tailored interventions to address his specific needs and goals, promoting better outcomes. Early rehabilitation can also prevent complications and improve functional abilities. By proactively addressing rehabilitation needs, Mr. Gabatan can have a smoother transition back to his daily activities. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Leaving the rehabilitation plans solely up to Mr. Gabatan and his family may not consider all aspects of his recovery and could lead to suboptimal outcomes. C: Assuming that Mr. Gabatan will return to his former activities without a rehabilitation plan overlooks the individualized care needed for his recovery. D: Dismissing the need for rehabilitation based on the assumption that he may not be able to work again is premature and does not account for potential improvements in his condition through appropriate rehabilitation interventions.
Question 2 of 9
A client is admitted for a spelenectomy. What problem is the nurse aware that could develop?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection. After a splenectomy, the client is at risk for infection due to the spleen's role in the immune system. Without the spleen, the body's ability to fight infections is reduced. Infections can be serious and life-threatening. B: Urinary retention is not a typical complication of a splenectomy. C: Congestive heart failure is not directly related to a splenectomy. D: Viral hepatitis is not a common complication of a splenectomy.
Question 3 of 9
for pain management. When applying a new system, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Pressing the system in place for 30 to 60 seconds helps ensure proper adhesion and absorption of the medication. This step is crucial for the effectiveness of the pain management system. B: Choosing a site on the lower torso is not necessary for applying the system. The site selection should be based on guidelines and patient preference. C: Shaving the application site is not recommended unless specifically indicated. It is not a standard step for applying a pain management system. D: Applying the system immediately after removal from a package may not allow the adhesive to fully activate, affecting its efficacy. It is important to follow the recommended steps for proper application.
Question 4 of 9
Rehabilitation plans for Mr. Gabatan;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer B: Rehabilitation plans for Mr. Gabatan should be considered and planned for early in his care to optimize his recovery and quality of life. Planning early allows for tailored interventions to address his specific needs and goals, promoting better outcomes. Early rehabilitation can also prevent complications and improve functional abilities. By proactively addressing rehabilitation needs, Mr. Gabatan can have a smoother transition back to his daily activities. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Leaving the rehabilitation plans solely up to Mr. Gabatan and his family may not consider all aspects of his recovery and could lead to suboptimal outcomes. C: Assuming that Mr. Gabatan will return to his former activities without a rehabilitation plan overlooks the individualized care needed for his recovery. D: Dismissing the need for rehabilitation based on the assumption that he may not be able to work again is premature and does not account for potential improvements in his condition through appropriate rehabilitation interventions.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is classified as subjective data in a nursing assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because subjective data in a nursing assessment refers to information provided by the patient, such as feelings, perceptions, and symptoms. In this case, the client stating 'I feel nauseated' represents subjective data. This type of information cannot be measured or observed directly. A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Heart rate of 90 beats per minute is an objective measurement that can be directly observed. C: Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg is also an objective measurement that can be directly observed. D: Skin appears flushed is an objective observation that can be directly seen.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following complications can occur if a clotted cannula is aggressively flushed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A clot can enter the circulation. When a clotted cannula is aggressively flushed, the force can dislodge the clot, allowing it to enter the circulation and potentially leading to serious complications such as embolism. Incorrect choices: B: An air embolism can enter the circulation - In the context of a clotted cannula, air embolism is less likely compared to a clot entering the circulation. C: A painful arterial spasm can occur - Arterial spasm is a potential complication but not directly related to flushing a clotted cannula. D: Fluid extravasation into surrounding tissue can occur - Flushing a clotted cannula may not specifically lead to fluid extravasation, as it is more related to needle dislodgement or improper placement.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving antibiotics to treat a gram-negative bacterial infection. Because antibiotics destroy the body’s normal flora, the nurse must monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diarrhea. Antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of gut bacteria, leading to diarrhea. This occurs due to the overgrowth of harmful bacteria in the intestines. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to prevent dehydration and further complications. Platelet dysfunction (A), stomatitis (B), and oliguria/dysuria (C) are not typically associated with the disruption of normal flora by antibiotics. These symptoms are more likely related to other conditions or side effects of medications, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
After assessing a patient, a nurse develops a standard formal nursing diagnosis. What is the rationale for the nurse’s actions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because developing a standard formal nursing diagnosis helps nurses focus on their scope of practice, which involves identifying and addressing the patient's nursing care needs. By formulating a specific nursing diagnosis, nurses can prioritize interventions and provide individualized care. Choice A is incorrect as nursing diagnoses are not exclusive to nurses. Choice B is incorrect because nursing and physician roles overlap. Choice C is incorrect as clinical judgment should be based on evidence and critical thinking, not solely on intuition.
Question 9 of 9
A client has an external fixation device on his leg due to a compound fracture. The client says that the device and swelling make his leg look ugly. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse document in his care plan based on the client’s concern?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disturbed body image. The client expressing concern about the external fixation device making his leg look ugly indicates a disturbance in how he perceives his body image. This can lead to feelings of low self-esteem and impact his overall psychological well-being. Impaired physical mobility (A) is not the priority as the concern is not related to limitations in movement. Risk for infection (C) may be a potential risk with the device but is not directly related to the client's current concern. Risk for social isolation (D) is not directly indicated by the client's statement about the appearance of the leg. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing diagnosis is Disturbed body image (B) based on the client's expressed concern.