ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
Regarding opioids:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Neonates have an immature blood-brain barrier, increasing opioid penetration, not blocking it, so that's false. Spinal analgesia involves mu, delta, and kappa receptors, not just one type, making that false. Depressed CO2 response is the most reliable sign of opioid-induced respiratory depression, a true statement, reflecting medullary suppression. Tolerance to miosis develops minimally, unlike analgesia, so that's false. Addison's patients are hypersensitive to opioids due to cortisol lack. The CO2 response is a key monitoring parameter in opioid overdose.
Question 2 of 5
The student nurse has been reading about the Human Genome Project and asks the nursing instructor how this will impact future pharmacological therapies. What is the best response by the instructor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Human Genome Project enables pharmacogenomics, tailoring drugs to genetic profiles for better efficacy (e.g., CYP2D6 variants), not eliminating drugs. Standardized doses ignore genetics. Disease prevention via genes complements, not replaces, drugs. Individualized therapy leverages genomics, enhancing treatment precision.
Question 3 of 5
Which common adverse effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) would be stressed by the nurse during patient discharge?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SSRIs (e.g., sertraline) commonly cause weight gain and sexual dysfunction (e.g., delayed ejaculation), per patient reports-key for adherence. Drowsiness/coma are overdose risks, not common. Headache/nausea occur but fade. Dry mouth/urine retention are anticholinergic, not SSRI. These impact quality of life, needing emphasis.
Question 4 of 5
A 63-year-old man with glaucoma maintained on a regimen of topical medications with an exacerbation of his symptoms. He complains of difficulty with his vision in both eyes and has headaches. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glaucoma involves elevated intraocular pressure (IOP), and this patient's exacerbation-vision difficulty and headaches-requires effective IOP reduction. Bimatoprost and Latanoprost are prostaglandin analogs, increasing outflow, but may not act fast enough for acute worsening. Pilocarpine , a muscarinic agonist, contracts the ciliary muscle, opening the trabecular meshwork, enhancing aqueous humor outflow, and rapidly lowering IOP-ideal for this scenario. Tetracycline is an antibiotic, irrelevant. Travoprost (E), another prostaglandin, is similar to A and B. Pilocarpine's direct action on outflow makes it most appropriate for urgent IOP control in open-angle or angle-closure glaucoma exacerbation. Its side effects (miosis, brow ache) are tolerable given the need for immediate relief, distinguishing it from slower-acting prostaglandins.
Question 5 of 5
A 26-year-old man with a chronic cough takes codeine for cough suppression. He presents to his primary care physician for follow-up. The patient admits to taking this medication three times daily even when he does not have symptoms. The treating physician must be concerned about which of the following effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.