ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
Regarding genetic variants that alter drug metabolism. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index have a small range between the minimum effective dose and the minimum toxic dose. Step 2: Genetic variants affecting drug metabolism can lead to small increases or decreases in drug levels. Step 3: Small increases can cause toxicity, while small decreases can lead to therapeutic failure. Step 4: Therefore, statement B is true as it correctly describes the impact of genetic variants on drug metabolism for drugs with a narrow therapeutic index. Summary: Statement A is incorrect as not all statements are true. Statement C is incorrect as drugs like warfarin are indeed affected by CYP2C9. Statement D is incorrect as drugs with a high therapeutic index are less affected by altered metabolism compared to drugs with a narrow therapeutic index.
Question 2 of 5
Which medication classification is used to decrease preload in patients with heart failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diuretics. Diuretics are used to decrease preload in heart failure patients by promoting diuresis, reducing fluid volume, and subsequently decreasing the pressure within the heart chambers. This helps to alleviate symptoms of fluid overload and reduce cardiac workload. Corticosteroids (B) are not typically used for preload reduction in heart failure. Beta blockers (C) and calcium channel blockers (D) primarily work by reducing afterload and improving cardiac function, rather than directly targeting preload reduction.
Question 3 of 5
A 2-year-old presents to the clinic with otalgia and fever. The left tympanic membrane (TM) is erythematous and bulging; The right TMs is perforated and draining. The child's parents states, “this is the fifth ear infection this year. What can we do?†What action will the provider take to address the child's ear problems?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prescribe amoxicillin/clavulanate and refer the child to an otolaryngologist. Rationale: 1. Amoxicillin/clavulanate is a recommended first-line antibiotic for recurrent otitis media due to its broad spectrum coverage. 2. Referring the child to an otolaryngologist is necessary for further evaluation and management of recurrent ear infections, as this child has had multiple episodes in a year. Summary of other choices: A: Prescribing both high dose amoxicillin and the influenza vaccine is not the best option as the child already has recurrent ear infections and needs a more comprehensive approach. B: Beginning prophylactic antibiotic therapy with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole is not recommended as a first-line treatment for recurrent otitis media. C: Prescribing ceftriaxone IV with benzocaine ear drops is not the optimal choice for managing recurrent ear infections in a 2-year-old.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is administered cefotetan for a urinary tract infection. After two days, the patient complains of stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, excessive sweating, itching, and headache. The patient also has decreased blood pressure. How would you interpret the assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because cefotetan can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with ethanol, leading to symptoms such as stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, sweating, itching, headache, and decreased blood pressure. This reaction occurs due to the inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase by cefotetan, leading to the accumulation of acetaldehyde when ethanol is consumed. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not explain the specific symptoms experienced by the patient, which are indicative of a disulfiram-like reaction triggered by the interaction between cefotetan and ethanol.
Question 5 of 5
A 24 year old patient is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection. Which of the following agents is indicated for use in this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Valacyclovir. Valacyclovir is a prodrug of acyclovir, which is the first-line treatment for genital herpes simplex virus infection. Acyclovir inhibits viral DNA synthesis by competing with deoxyguanosine triphosphate for viral DNA polymerase. This leads to the termination of viral replication. Lamivudine (A) is used for HIV and hepatitis B infections. Cidofovir (B) is used for cytomegalovirus and other DNA virus infections, but not for herpes simplex virus. Zanamivir (D) is used for influenza viruses, not herpes simplex virus.