Regarding CPAP, the following are true EXCEPT

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Pediatric NCLEX Practice Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

Regarding CPAP, the following are true EXCEPT

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pediatric care and the use of CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure), it is crucial for nursing students preparing for the NCLEX exam to understand the rationale behind each option provided. Option B, "its indicated if oxygen saturation cannot be kept > 95%," is the correct answer because CPAP is actually indicated when oxygen saturation levels cannot be maintained above 90-92%. CPAP helps to improve oxygenation in patients by keeping the alveoli open, allowing for better gas exchange. When oxygen saturation levels drop below 95%, CPAP may be considered as a treatment option. Option A, "it prevents collapse of surfactant-deficient alveoli," is a true statement. CPAP helps to keep the alveoli open, preventing atelectasis and promoting better oxygen exchange. Option C, "it improves functional residual capacity (FRC)," is also true. CPAP helps to recruit collapsed alveoli and improve lung volume, thus increasing the functional residual capacity. Option D, "it reduces ventilatory needs," is incorrect. CPAP does not reduce ventilatory needs but rather supports the patient's respiratory efforts by providing a continuous positive pressure to keep the airways open. Understanding the indications and effects of CPAP in pediatric patients is vital for nursing students as they care for children with respiratory distress. By grasping the nuances of CPAP therapy, students can provide safe and effective care to pediatric patients in need of respiratory support.

Question 2 of 5

Early ultrasonographic signs of hydrops include

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of pediatric health, understanding the early ultrasonographic signs of hydrops is crucial for nurses preparing for the NCLEX exam. The correct answer is A) double-bowel wall sign (bowel edema). This sign is indicative of fetal hydrops, a serious condition characterized by abnormal fluid accumulation in two or more fetal compartments. Bowel edema is a specific finding on ultrasound that suggests the presence of hydrops. Option B) polyhydramnios refers to excessive amniotic fluid which can be seen in certain conditions but is not a specific early sign of hydrops. Option C) ascites, which is fluid accumulation in the abdomen, can be a consequence of hydrops but is not an early ultrasonographic sign. Option D) scalp edema is another potential clinical sign of hydrops but is not typically seen on ultrasound in the early stages. Educationally, understanding these distinctions is vital for nurses as they care for pediatric patients and pregnant women. Recognizing these early signs can lead to prompt intervention and improved outcomes. Nurses need to be able to differentiate between various ultrasound findings to provide accurate assessments and interventions, making this knowledge essential for pediatric nursing practice.

Question 3 of 5

The following definitions are true EXCEPT

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this pediatric NCLEX practice quiz question, the correct answer is D) Disruption sequence is a mechanical (uterine) force that alters the structure of intrinsically normal tissue. Explanation: Dysplasia sequence (option B) is a poor organization of cells into tissues or organs, which is a correct definition. A syndrome (option A) is also correctly defined as a pattern of multiple abnormalities related by pathophysiology and a common etiology. An association (option C) is defined as a nonrandom collection of malformations with an unclear relationship among them. Educational context: Understanding these definitions is crucial for healthcare professionals working with pediatric patients. Recognizing and correctly categorizing these terms can aid in diagnosing and treating children with various congenital conditions, genetic disorders, or developmental abnormalities. It is important to differentiate between these terms to provide appropriate care and interventions for pediatric patients.

Question 4 of 5

Common respiratory tract manifestations of neonatal bacterial infections is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Empyema. Empyema refers to the accumulation of pus in a body cavity, in this case, the pleural space around the lungs. In neonates, bacterial infections can lead to empyema as a result of pneumonia or sepsis. This condition can cause respiratory distress, fever, and increased work of breathing in affected infants. Options A, B, and C (Ethmoiditis, Otitis media, Mastoiditis) are not common respiratory tract manifestations of neonatal bacterial infections. Ethmoiditis is inflammation of the ethmoid sinus, Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear, and Mastoiditis is an infection of the mastoid bone. While these conditions may occur in children, they are not typically associated with bacterial infections in the neonatal period. In an educational context, understanding common respiratory tract manifestations of neonatal bacterial infections is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers working with infants. Recognizing signs and symptoms early can lead to prompt treatment and improved outcomes for these vulnerable patients. Empyema is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications such as respiratory failure.

Question 5 of 5

When screening for intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH), the best time to perform an ultrasound is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In screening for intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) in infants, performing an ultrasound on the third day of life is crucial. This timing is recommended because IVH often occurs around this time due to the fragile blood vessels in premature infants' brains. By the third day, the risk of IVH is more evident, allowing for accurate detection through ultrasound. Option A, performing the ultrasound on the first day of life, is too early to detect IVH accurately as it may not have developed by then. Option B, on the second day of life, is also premature for reliable detection of IVH, as the risk increases after the first 48 hours. Option D, on the fourth day of life, may be too late to intervene effectively if IVH is already present. Educationally, understanding the timing for IVH screening is vital for healthcare professionals working with newborns, especially premature infants who are at higher risk. Early detection of IVH can lead to prompt intervention and better outcomes for infants. This question reinforces the importance of timing in screening protocols and highlights the critical window for assessing IVH in neonates.

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