Regarding CPAP, the following are true EXCEPT

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Pediatric NCLEX Practice Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

Regarding CPAP, the following are true EXCEPT

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pediatric care and respiratory support, understanding the use of CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) is crucial. In this question, option B is the correct answer because CPAP is actually indicated when oxygen saturation cannot be maintained above 95%. Option A is incorrect because CPAP does indeed prevent the collapse of surfactant-deficient alveoli by providing a continuous pressure to keep the airways open. Option C is also incorrect as CPAP does improve the functional residual capacity (FRC) by keeping the alveoli open and preventing collapse. Option D is incorrect as well because CPAP actually increases ventilatory needs by improving oxygenation and reducing the work of breathing, which can lead to increased ventilation needs. Educationally, understanding the indications and effects of CPAP in pediatric patients is vital for nurses and healthcare providers working in pediatric settings. It helps in providing appropriate respiratory support and optimizing patient care for children with respiratory distress or failure.

Question 2 of 5

Early ultrasonographic signs of hydrops include

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of pediatric care, understanding early ultrasonographic signs of hydrops is crucial for nurses preparing for the NCLEX exam. The correct answer is A) double-bowel wall sign (bowel edema). This sign is indicative of fetal bowel edema, which is a key feature of hydrops fetalis. Bowel edema is one of the initial ultrasonographic findings in the development of hydrops, making it a significant early marker for this condition. Option B) polyhydramnios is excessive amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus and is not specific to hydrops. While it can be present in some cases of hydrops, it is not an early sign. Option C) ascites refers to fluid accumulation in the abdomen and is a late sign of hydrops, not an early ultrasonographic finding. Option D) scalp edema is also a late sign of hydrops and is not typically one of the early ultrasonographic signs seen in fetal hydrops. Understanding these distinctions is essential for nurses caring for pediatric patients, as it helps in early identification and intervention for conditions like hydrops fetalis. By recognizing the early ultrasonographic signs, healthcare providers can initiate timely and appropriate management to improve outcomes for both the fetus and the mother.

Question 3 of 5

The following definitions are true EXCEPT

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is option D. Disruption sequence refers to a mechanical force, typically in utero, that alters the structure of intrinsically normal tissue. This is the correct answer because disruption sequence is distinct from the other options in that it involves mechanical force altering tissue structure, rather than being related to genetic or developmental abnormalities. Option A is incorrect because it accurately defines a syndrome as a pattern of abnormalities with a common etiology. Option B is incorrect as it defines dysplasia, not dysplasia sequence, which involves poor cell organization. Option C is incorrect as it describes an association, where malformations coexist without a clear relationship. In an educational context, understanding these definitions is crucial for healthcare professionals working with pediatric patients. Recognizing and distinguishing between different terms related to pediatric conditions is essential for accurate diagnosis, treatment, and communication with colleagues and families. This knowledge helps ensure appropriate interventions and support for children with various medical conditions.

Question 4 of 5

Common respiratory tract manifestations of neonatal bacterial infections is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Empyema. Empyema is a common respiratory tract manifestation of neonatal bacterial infections. Empyema refers to the accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity, often as a result of a bacterial infection in the lungs. In neonates, bacterial infections can lead to empyema due to their immature immune systems and increased susceptibility to infections. Option A) Ethmoiditis is incorrect because it refers to inflammation of the ethmoid sinus, which is not a common respiratory tract manifestation of neonatal bacterial infections. Option B) Otitis media is incorrect because it is an infection of the middle ear, not a respiratory tract manifestation. Option C) Mastoiditis is incorrect because it is an infection of the mastoid bone, which is not a common respiratory tract manifestation in neonates. Educational context: Understanding common respiratory tract manifestations of neonatal bacterial infections is crucial for healthcare providers working with pediatric patients. Recognizing these manifestations helps in early identification, diagnosis, and treatment of infections in neonates, which is essential for their well-being and health outcomes. Empyema, being a serious complication of respiratory infections in neonates, requires prompt intervention to prevent further complications.

Question 5 of 5

When screening for intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH), the best time to perform an ultrasound is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Third day of life. In neonates, particularly premature infants, intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) is a serious complication that can lead to neurological deficits. Performing an ultrasound on the third day of life is the optimal timing for detecting IVH because this is when the risk of developing IVH is the highest. By this time, the premature infant's fragile blood vessels in the brain are more likely to rupture, leading to bleeding that can be visualized on the ultrasound. Option A) First day of life is too early to detect IVH as the risk and incidence of IVH increase in the following days after birth, especially in premature infants. Option B) Second day of life is also too early to reliably detect IVH. While some cases of IVH may occur by the second day, the third day is a more optimal time for screening. Option D) Fourth day of life is past the peak risk period for developing IVH. Detecting IVH on the fourth day may result in a delayed diagnosis and intervention, potentially leading to worse outcomes for the infant. Educationally, understanding the timing of screening for IVH in neonates is crucial for healthcare providers working in neonatal care settings. Timely detection of IVH allows for prompt intervention and management, which can significantly impact the infant's long-term neurological outcomes. This question emphasizes the importance of knowing the appropriate timing for screening procedures in neonatal care to ensure the best possible outcomes for vulnerable patient populations.

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