Regarding antibiotic resistance:

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ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

Regarding antibiotic resistance:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Beta-lactamase isn't the primary resistance mechanism in pneumococci (PBP alteration is), so that's false. Penicillin's poor penetration into gram-negative bacteria due to outer membranes is a true statement, a common resistance factor. Altered penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) drive pneumococcal resistance, not the main general mechanism, though true in context. Methicillin resistance in Staph (MRSA) is due to mecA gene producing altered PBPs, not just beta-lactamase, so that's false. Penetration issues in gram-negatives are a fundamental barrier, guiding beta-lactam design like piperacillin.

Question 2 of 5

Graded dose-response curves are most useful for determining

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Graded dose-response curves plot individual response intensity to dose increases (e.g., pain relief), a pharmacodynamic tool. Population curves (e.g., ED50) suit groups, not individuals. Large or small groups aggregate data, missing individual nuance. Individual focus defines graded curves, key for tailoring therapy.

Question 3 of 5

The patient has been receiving amitriptyline (Elavil) for 2 weeks. He tells the nurse he doesn't think this medicine is working, as he is still depressed. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The best response by the nurse is option A: "It is working, but it can take several weeks to have an effect." This response is correct because amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, often takes time to build up in the patient's system and reach therapeutic levels. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about the delayed onset of action of this medication to manage the patient's expectations and encourage adherence to the treatment plan. Option B is incorrect because it minimizes the patient's feelings of depression and does not address the pharmacological mechanism of action of the medication. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can be dangerous and may exacerbate the patient's symptoms. Option D is incorrect because while it is true that tricyclic antidepressants may take several weeks to show full therapeutic effects, it is not accurate to state that it can take several months. From an educational perspective, this question highlights the importance of patient education and managing expectations when administering psychotropic medications. It underscores the need for healthcare providers to communicate effectively with patients about the anticipated timeline for therapeutic effects of medications to ensure optimal outcomes and adherence to treatment plans.

Question 4 of 5

A 48-year-old woman with 2-year history of rheumatoid arthritis has not had sufficient relief with methotrexate alone. Her physician prescribes a biologic TNF-α inhibitor that consists of a recombinant human IgG fused to TNF-α receptor. Which of the following drugs is this?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) progression despite methotrexate warrants a TNF-α inhibitor. The description-recombinant human IgG fused to TNF-α receptor-points to Etanercept . Adalimumab and Golimumab are monoclonal antibodies against TNF-α, not receptor fusions. Certolizumab is a PEGylated Fab fragment, not IgG-based. Etanercept , a fusion protein, binds TNF-α, neutralizing it, and matches the question's structure. Infliximab (E) is a chimeric antibody. Etanercept's unique receptor-IgG design distinguishes it, effectively reducing RA inflammation by sequestering TNF-α, a key cytokine, making it the precise answer here.

Question 5 of 5

A 52-year-old woman with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections complains of easy bruising as well as chronic fatigue. She is maintained on daily antibiotic prophylaxis with trimethoprim. Which of the following hematologic effects is likely as a result of long-term therapy with trimethoprim?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Megaloblastic anemia. Trimethoprim, as a folate antagonist, can inhibit folic acid metabolism in the body. This interference can lead to megaloblastic anemia, characterized by the production of large, immature red blood cells. This type of anemia is a well-known side effect of long-term trimethoprim therapy. A) Aplastic anemia is an incorrect option because trimethoprim does not typically cause suppression of the bone marrow, which is characteristic of aplastic anemia. C) Microcytic anemia is not the likely hematologic effect of long-term trimethoprim use. This type of anemia is usually associated with iron deficiency and not with the mechanism of action of trimethoprim. D) Normocytic anemia is also an incorrect option. Trimethoprim's effect on folic acid metabolism typically leads to megaloblastic anemia rather than normocytic anemia. Educationally, understanding the hematologic side effects of medications is crucial for healthcare professionals in providing safe and effective patient care. Pharmacology knowledge helps in predicting and managing potential adverse effects, ensuring optimal medication therapy for patients. Being able to recognize and differentiate between different types of anemia based on their etiology is a key skill for healthcare providers when assessing and managing patients with hematologic conditions.

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