ATI RN
Maternal Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
Reduction in congenital rubella is best accomplished by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because immunizing susceptible women at least 28 days before they become pregnant ensures protection against rubella during pregnancy, reducing the risk of congenital rubella syndrome in the fetus. This timing allows for the development of immunity before conception. Avoiding contact with young children (A) does not directly prevent rubella transmission to pregnant women. Taking prophylactic antibiotics during pregnancy (B) is not recommended for rubella prevention. Testing rubella titer at the first prenatal visit (C) only assesses current immunity status but does not actively prevent congenital rubella.
Question 2 of 5
A patient, 32 weeks pregnant with severe headache, is admitted to the hospital with preeclampsia. In addition to obtaining baseline vital signs and placing the client on bed rest, the physician ordered the following four items. Which of the orders should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess deep tendon reflexes. This is the priority because preeclampsia can progress to eclampsia, a life-threatening condition characterized by seizures. Assessing deep tendon reflexes helps in identifying signs of impending eclampsia. Obtaining a complete blood count (option B) and routine urinalysis (option D) are important in monitoring for complications of preeclampsia but do not address the immediate risk of seizures. Assessing baseline weight (option C) is also important but does not take precedence over assessing deep tendon reflexes in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A 32-week-gestation client was last seen in the prenatal clinic at 28 weeks' gestation. Which of the following changes should the nurse bring to the attention of the certified nurse midwife?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a weight gain of 10 pounds in 4 weeks for a 32-week-gestation client is excessive and may indicate a potential issue such as gestational diabetes or preeclampsia. B: The pulse rate change is within a normal range for pregnancy. C: The blood pressure change is minimal and still within normal limits. D: The respiratory rate change is also within normal limits for pregnancy.
Question 4 of 5
A client has severe preeclampsia. The nurse would expect the primary health care practitioner to order tests to assess the fetus for which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). In severe preeclampsia, there is a risk of placental insufficiency leading to reduced blood flow to the fetus, resulting in IUGR. The primary concern is monitoring the fetus's growth and well-being. A: Severe anemia is not typically a direct result of severe preeclampsia and is not a primary concern in this situation. B: Hypoprothrombinemia refers to a deficiency in blood clotting factors and is not directly related to fetal well-being in the context of severe preeclampsia. C: Craniosynostosis is a condition where the bones in an infant's skull fuse too early, which is a congenital issue and not typically related to preeclampsia. In summary, the primary concern in severe preeclampsia is assessing fetal growth and well-being due to placental insufficiency, making IUG
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is grading a woman's reflexes. Which of the following grades would indicate reflexes that are slightly brisker than normal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.