"Red man syndrome "has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of * which of the following antibiotic?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin. Vancomycin infusion releases histamine, leading to flushing, rash, and hypotension. Clindamycin (B), Cefoperazone (C), and Piperacillin (D) are not associated with red man syndrome. Clindamycin can cause pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone can cause bleeding disorders, and Piperacillin can cause hypersensitivity reactions, but not red man syndrome.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Diethyl carbamazine is the correct answer for the treatment of filariasis as it is the drug of choice due to its effectiveness in killing microfilariae and adult worms. Diethyl carbamazine directly targets the parasites responsible for filariasis, leading to their death and eventual elimination from the body. Albendazole, Levamisole, and Piperazine are not commonly used for filariasis treatment and are more commonly used for other parasitic infections. Albendazole is more commonly used for helminthic infections, Levamisole for roundworm infections, and Piperazine for pinworm infections.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ritonavir. Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor that works by inhibiting the HIV protease enzyme, which is crucial for viral replication. This action helps prevent the virus from spreading and multiplying in the body. Lamivudine (A), Efavirenz (B), and Stavudine (C) are not protease inhibitors and work through different mechanisms like nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibition (Lamivudine and Stavudine) and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibition (Efavirenz). Therefore, they do not directly target the HIV protease enzyme like Ritonavir does.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral DNA replication by targeting viral DNA polymerase. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus is most susceptible to acyclovir because it is a DNA virus that requires viral DNA polymerase for replication. The drug is selectively activated by viral thymidine kinase in infected cells, leading to its antiviral activity. Herpes simplex Type 2, Varicella zoster, and other viruses do not possess the same susceptibility to acyclovir due to differences in their replication mechanisms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tinidazole. This drug is used for oral treatment of trichomonas vaginitis due to its high efficacy against the parasite. Tinidazole is a nitroimidazole antibiotic that targets anaerobic organisms like Trichomonas vaginalis. Diiodohydroxyquin (A) is used for amoebiasis, not trichomonas. Clotrimazole (C) and Ketoconazole (D) are antifungal medications and not effective against trichomonas parasites.