ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Exam Practice Questions
Question 1 of 5
Recent studies into the pathogenesis of halothane-induced malignant hyperthermia indicate which of the following as the likely implicating cause?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia (MH) from halothane involves excitation-contraction coupling defects . MH, a genetic disorder, stems from ryanodine receptor (RYR1) mutations, causing uncontrolled calcium release in muscle, not drug toxicity . Sodium defects , oxygen deficits , or neural overmodulation (E) aren't implicated. This coupling defect triggers hypermetabolism, explaining MH's rapid onset with halothane exposure.
Question 2 of 5
A 56-year-old man with chronic pain injects himself with morphine, which he obtained from a friend who is an emergency department nurse. He is found dead in his apartment by the police. What is the most likely cause of death?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
Which one of the following antipsychotics has been shown to be a partial agonist at the dopamine D2 receptor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aripiprazole, a third-generation antipsychotic, acts as a partial agonist at D2 receptors, stabilizing dopamine activity: it activates receptors in low-dopamine states (e.g., negative symptoms) and competes with excess dopamine (e.g., psychosis), reducing side effects like EPS. Clozapine, a second-generation drug, has weak D2 affinity, targeting 5HT2 and other receptors. Haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, is a D2 antagonist. Risperidone and thioridazine block D2 fully, not partially. Aripiprazole's unique partial agonism, confirmed by pharmacological data, balances efficacy and tolerability, distinguishing it in schizophrenia treatment.
Question 4 of 5
The client tells the nurse that her symptoms have become worse since she has been using oxymetazoline (Afrin) for nasal congestion. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oxymetazoline, a nasal decongestant, can cause rebound congestion (rhinitis medicamentosa) if used beyond 3-5 days, worsening symptoms due to vascular dependence. The best assessment question is how long the client has used it, as prolonged use is the likely culprit, guiding the nurse to educate on discontinuation or seek medical advice. The bottle's age might affect potency but isn't the primary concern for worsening symptoms. Temperature checks for infection, a secondary issue here. Other inhaled medications could interact but don't directly explain rebound effects. The nurse prioritizes duration to pinpoint misuse, a common issue with topical decongestants, making choice D critical for accurate assessment and intervention.
Question 5 of 5
A client calls the clinic and tells the nurse that she has missed taking several of her contraceptive pills during the current cycle. What is the best instruction for the nurse to give the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Missing several contraceptive pills compromises efficacy, requiring an alternative method for the cycle to prevent pregnancy. Testing assesses outcome, not prevention. Future methods don't address now. Fewer than three still risks failure. D ensures immediate protection, making it the best instruction.