ATI RN
microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Reactions where small precursor molecules are assembled into larger organic molecules are
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: anabolic. Anabolic reactions involve the synthesis of larger organic molecules from smaller precursor molecules. This process requires energy input and is essential for growth and repair in living organisms. Choice B: Catabolic reactions involve the breakdown of larger molecules into smaller ones, releasing energy in the process. This is the opposite of what is described in the question. Choice C: Metabolic is a broad term that encompasses all chemical processes in living organisms, including both anabolic and catabolic reactions. It is not specific to the assembly of small molecules into larger ones. Choice D: "Any of the above" is incorrect because only anabolic reactions specifically involve the assembly of small precursor molecules into larger organic molecules.
Question 2 of 9
A man was admitted to the hospital on the 5th day of disease that manifested itself by jaundice, muscle aching, chill, nose bleedings. In course of laboratory diagnostics a bacteriologist performed darkfield microscopy of the patient's blood drop. Name a causative agent of this disease:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leptospira interrogans. Darkfield microscopy is used to visualize spirochetes, which are spiral-shaped bacteria. Leptospira is a spirochete bacterium that causes leptospirosis, which presents with jaundice, muscle aching, chill, and nosebleeds. Leptospira is commonly transmitted through contact with contaminated water or soil. B: Borrelia dutlonii causes Lyme disease, which is transmitted by ticks and does not typically present with jaundice or nosebleeds. C: Calymmatobacterium granulomatis causes granuloma inguinale, a sexually transmitted infection that does not present with the symptoms described. D: Bartonella bacilloformis causes Carrion's disease, which presents with fever, anemia, and skin lesions but not jaundice or nosebleeds.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following bacteria are capable of surviving in both aerobic and anaerobic environments?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic environments. In aerobic conditions, they use oxygen for energy production, while in anaerobic conditions, they can switch to fermentation or anaerobic respiration. A: Obligate aerobes require oxygen to survive and cannot survive in anaerobic environments. C: Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen and only thrive in anaerobic conditions. D: Microaerophiles require low levels of oxygen to survive and cannot thrive in fully aerobic or anaerobic conditions.
Question 4 of 9
The bacterial species that is resistant to novobiocin is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Staphylococcus saprophyticus. The rationale is that Staphylococcus saprophyticus is the only one among the listed species that is known to be resistant to novobiocin. This resistance is due to the specific mechanism of action of novobiocin, which targets DNA gyrase, and Staphylococcus saprophyticus possesses an altered DNA gyrase enzyme that renders it resistant to the antibiotic. Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are susceptible to novobiocin, making choices A and B incorrect. Choice D, "none of the listed," is also incorrect as Staphylococcus saprophyticus is indeed resistant to novobiocin.
Question 5 of 9
The main target of toxin produced by Vibrio cholerae are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the main target of the toxin produced by Vibrio cholerae is the epithelial cells of the small intestine. This toxin, known as cholera toxin, binds to the surface of these cells and disrupts their normal function, leading to the characteristic watery diarrhea seen in cholera. The other choices are incorrect because macrophages are not the main target, RBCs are not directly affected by the toxin, and the stomach epithelial cells are not specifically targeted by Vibrio cholerae toxin.
Question 6 of 9
Microbial life on teeth was first observed by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Van Leeuwenhoek. Van Leeuwenhoek was a Dutch scientist known for his pioneering work in microscopy. He was the first to observe microbial life, including bacteria on teeth, using his handmade microscopes in the 17th century. Jenner (choice A) is known for developing the smallpox vaccine, not for microbial observations. Semmelweis (choice B) discovered the importance of handwashing in preventing infections. Pasteur (choice D) is famous for his work on pasteurization and germ theory, but not specifically for observing microbial life on teeth. Van Leeuwenhoek's meticulous observations and groundbreaking discoveries make him the correct choice in this context.
Question 7 of 9
The function of catalase in bacteria is to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: decompose hydrogen peroxide. Catalase is an enzyme that breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. This is important in bacteria to protect them from the harmful effects of hydrogen peroxide, a byproduct of metabolism. Choice B is incorrect as peptidoglycan synthesis is not the function of catalase. Choice C is incorrect as oxidative phosphorylation is a metabolic process unrelated to catalase function. Choice D is incorrect as endotoxin production is not a role of catalase.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had sputum cultured revealing Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium fits the description of Gram-negative diplococci that are oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria meningitidis commonly causes pneumonia and meningitis. Choice B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Choice C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Choice D: Haemophilus influenzae is not fermentative and typically appears as pleomorphic rods, not diplococci.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a wound infection had Gram-positive cocci in clusters isolated from a wound culture. The organism was catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest Staphylococcus species. 2. Catalase-positive and coagulase-positive characteristics match with Staphylococcus aureus. 3. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of wound infections due to its virulence factors. 4. Other choices are incorrect: B) S. epidermidis is coagulase-negative and a common contaminant, C) S. pyogenes is catalase-negative, D) Enterococcus faecalis is not typically associated with wound infections.