ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
R. S. is a 66-year-old female with Cushings syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor. The tumor is readily isolated by imaging, and the patient had an uneventful surgery. When seeing her in follow-up, the AGACNP anticipates
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones. After surgical removal of the ACTH-producing pituitary tumor in Cushing's syndrome, there may be a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones due to relief of negative feedback from the tumor. This can lead to a temporary increase in pituitary hormone levels before normalization. Rationale: 1. Rapid reversal of symptoms with good pituitary function (Choice A) is less likely as it takes time for the pituitary gland to recover and resume normal hormone production post-surgery. 2. Markedly improved dexamethasone suppression test (Choice C) is not expected immediately after surgery as it may take time for the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis to normalize. 3. Hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH (Choice D) are unlikely post-operatively in Cushing's syndrome as removal of the ACTH-producing tumor should lead to normalization of
Question 2 of 5
There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of any other abnormal findings suggests that Mr. Thornton is currently experiencing an anterior wall infarction. This is indicated by the localized area of myocardial necrosis due to prolonged ischemia. Option A is incorrect because ischemia would typically present with reversible changes rather than necrosis. Option C is incorrect as NSTEMI would show some abnormal findings. Option D is incorrect as STEMI would show more significant ECG changes and enzyme elevation. In summary, the absence of other abnormalities points towards an acute event like an anterior wall infarction.
Question 3 of 5
The AGACNP is counseling a patient about various methods of tumor biopsy. Which of the following is not an accurate statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Fine needle aspiration does not allow grading of tumors. Rationale: 1. Fine needle aspiration (FNA) collects cells for cytology evaluation, not tissue for grading. 2. Grading requires evaluation of tissue architecture, which is not possible with FNA. 3. FNA is useful for diagnosis but not for determining tumor grade. Summary: A: Incorrect - Excisional biopsy is preferred over incisional biopsy to obtain the entire tumor for diagnosis and grading. B: Incorrect - Core needle biopsy has a lower false positive rate compared to fine needle aspiration. D: Incorrect - Core needle and incisional biopsies differ in the amount of tissue sampled and potential for false results.
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with a 2-day history of abdominal pain, fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. A surgical abdomen is ruled out, and radiography demonstrates inflammation of the small bowel and colon. Microscopy supports a diagnosis of Campylobacter jejuni, and the patient is prepared for discharge from the emergency room. Important patient education includes advising her that
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Campylobacter jejuni is a bacteria commonly associated with foodborne illness, often found in undercooked poultry and unpasteurized milk. Step 2: The patient's symptoms and microbiological findings are consistent with Campylobacter infection. Step 3: Advising the patient that there is no readily identified food source of this bacteria is important for preventing future exposure and potential reinfection. Step 4: Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the specific educational need related to food safety and prevention of Campylobacter infection.
Question 5 of 5
Mr. Jefferson is a 59-year-old male who presents to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. His medical history is significant for dyslipidemia, and he takes 40 mgof simvastatin daily. He admits to drinking 6 to 10 bottles of beer nightly and to smoking 1 packs of cigarettes a day. He denies any history of chest pain or cardiovascular disease. He was in his usual state of good health until a couple of hours ago, when he developed this acute onset of severe pain in the upper abdomen. He says that he tried to wait it out at home but it was so bad he finally came in. His vital signs are as follows temperature 99.1F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 13784 mm Hg. The abdomen is diffusely tender to palpation with some guarding but no rebound tenderness. The AGACNP anticipates that which of the following laboratory tests will be abnormal?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A complete blood count and RBC differential. In this case, Mr. Jefferson presents with severe abdominal pain, which could indicate various conditions like pancreatitis, a possible complication of his heavy drinking. A complete blood count (CBC) with RBC differential can help assess for signs of inflammation or infection, which may be elevated in conditions like pancreatitis. The RBC differential can also provide insights into potential causes of abdominal pain, such as anemia or other blood disorders. Summary: - B: Liver function enzymes may be affected in conditions like alcoholic liver disease, but in this case, the focus should be on investigating acute abdominal pain. - C: Serum amylase, lipase, and glucose are typically checked in cases of suspected pancreatitis, but a CBC with RBC differential would provide a more comprehensive initial assessment. - D: A basic metabolic panel may not directly address the underlying cause of the acute abdominal pain and is not the most appropriate test to anticipate