ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
R. S. is a 66-year-old female with Cushings syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor. The tumor is readily isolated by imaging, and the patient had an uneventful surgery. When seeing her in follow-up, the AGACNP anticipates
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In patients with Cushing's syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor, removal of the tumor can result in a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones. This occurs because the suppressed pituitary gland begins to recover and overproduce hormones in response to the sudden decrease in negative feedback from the removed tumor. As a result, patients may experience transient hormonal fluctuations before the pituitary gland establishes a new equilibrium. Therefore, when seeing the patient in follow-up after surgery, the AGACNP should anticipate a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones rather than immediate and rapid reversal of symptoms or markedly improved test results. Additionally, hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH are less likely in this scenario unless there are other underlying factors contributing to it.
Question 2 of 5
There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the given scenario where there are no other abnormal findings, it suggests that Mr. Thornton is experiencing anterior wall ischemia. Ischemia occurs due to inadequate blood supply to the heart muscles, often caused by a partial blockage in the coronary arteries. The absence of abnormal findings, such as ST-segment elevation or specific changes on the electrocardiogram (ECG), indicates that the issue is more likely ischemia rather than infarction. Infarction, whether NSTEMI or STEMI, would typically be associated with specific ECG changes and significant abnormalities beyond just the absence of findings. In the absence of these features, the more likely diagnosis is anterior wall ischemia.
Question 3 of 5
The AGACNP is counseling a patient about various methods of tumor biopsy. Which of the following is not an accurate statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Typically, excisional biopsy is preferred over incisional biopsy whenever feasible because it provides a more accurate representation of the tumor since the entire mass is removed. This benefits both the patient (by potentially preventing the need for a second procedure) and the medical team (by ensuring a more comprehensive evaluation of the tumor). It is important to remove the entire lesion during excisional biopsy to make an accurate diagnosis. Incisional biopsy, on the other hand, involves taking only a portion of the tumor for examination, which may lead to potential sampling error and inadequate representation of the tumor.
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with a 2-day history of abdominal pain, fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. A surgical abdomen is ruled out, and radiography demonstrates inflammation of the small bowel and colon. Microscopy supports a diagnosis of Campylobacter jejuni, and the patient is prepared for discharge from the emergency room. Important patient education includes advising her that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Campylobacter jejuni is a common bacterial cause of gastroenteritis, typically transmitted through contaminated food, water, or contact with infected animals. Patient education regarding Campylobacter jejuni infection should include advising the patient that the bacteria may be spread for as long as she has diarrhea. It is important for the patient to practice good hand hygiene and take precautions to prevent spreading the infection to others. While most cases of Campylobacter infection are self-limiting and resolve on their own without the need for antibiotics, proper hygiene practices help prevent the spread of the bacteria to others.
Question 5 of 5
Mr. Jefferson is a 59-year-old male who presents to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. His medical history is significant for dyslipidemia, and he takes 40 mgof simvastatin daily. He admits to drinking 6 to 10 bottles of beer nightly and to smoking 1 packs of cigarettes a day. He denies any history of chest pain or cardiovascular disease. He was in his usual state of good health until a couple of hours ago, when he developed this acute onset of severe pain in the upper abdomen. He says that he tried to wait it out at home but it was so bad he finally came in. His vital signs are as follows temperature 99.1F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 13784 mm Hg. The abdomen is diffusely tender to palpation with some guarding but no rebound tenderness. The AGACNP anticipates that which of the following laboratory tests will be abnormal?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Given the patient's presentation of acute onset severe abdominal pain, the AGACNP anticipates abnormalities in serum amylase and lipase levels, as this can indicate pancreatitis. The presence of symptoms such as severe upper abdominal pain, along with the patient's risk factors such as heavy alcohol consumption, smoking, and dyslipidemia, increase suspicion for acute pancreatitis. Additionally, the evaluation of serum glucose levels is important to assess for potential hyperglycemia, which can be seen in acute pancreatitis. Liver function enzymes and basic metabolic panel may also be abnormal in the setting of pancreatitis; however, the most specific and sensitive tests for diagnosing acute pancreatitis are serum amylase and lipase levels.