Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluoroquinolone antibiotics. In this case, the patient presents with signs of sepsis and urinary retention, which are indicative of a possible prostatic abscess. Administering fluoroquinolone antibiotics could potentially mask the symptoms and delay further evaluation and treatment of the abscess. This can lead to worsening infection and sepsis. Therefore, the AGACNP should avoid prescribing fluoroquinolones until further evaluation is done to confirm or rule out a prostatic abscess. Incorrect choices: A: Digital prostate examination - This could help in assessing the prostate for abscess or other abnormalities. B: Urinary catheterization - Necessary to relieve bladder distention and assess urine output. D: Drainage of prostate abscess - If confirmed, drainage would be the appropriate intervention to address the abscess.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Grunting on expiration. In respiratory distress syndrome, the infant may exhibit grunting on expiration due to the difficulty in maintaining lung inflation during exhalation. This is a compensatory mechanism to increase functional residual capacity. Grunting on inspiration (choice A) may be seen in other respiratory conditions. Flaring of the nostrils (choice C) is a sign of increased work of breathing but is not specific to respiratory distress syndrome. Neonatal tachycardia (choice D) can be a nonspecific sign of distress and is not a specific feature of respiratory distress syndrome.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of any other abnormal findings suggests that Mr. Thornton is currently experiencing an anterior wall infarction. This is indicated by the localized area of myocardial necrosis due to prolonged ischemia. Option A is incorrect because ischemia would typically present with reversible changes rather than necrosis. Option C is incorrect as NSTEMI would show some abnormal findings. Option D is incorrect as STEMI would show more significant ECG changes and enzyme elevation. In summary, the absence of other abnormalities points towards an acute event like an anterior wall infarction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Six hours postnatally. Cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between a baby's skull and the periosteum. It typically appears several hours after birth due to trauma during delivery, causing bleeding under the periosteum. This allows time for the blood to accumulate and form a distinct swelling, making the onset around six hours postnatally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical timeline for the development of cephalohematoma.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Submentovertival, bitemporal. In a face presentation, the presenting diameters are submentovertival (chin to vertex) and bitemporal (temple to temple). This is because the fetus is in a face-first position with the chin presenting first. Option B is incorrect because submentobregmatic is not a recognized presenting diameter in face presentation. Option C is incorrect as biparietal refers to the widest transverse diameter of the fetal head, not relevant in face presentation. Option D is incorrect as mentovertical is not a valid presenting diameter in face presentation.