R. R. is a 61-year-old male patient who presents with a chief complaint of fever and urinary symptoms. He was in his usual state of good health when for no apparent reason he developed pain in his back and perineal region, as well as fever and chills. He presents as septic. He had urinary hesitancy and decreased stream but now reports that he has not passed urine in more than 12 hours. Palpation of the lower abdomen is consistent with bladder distention. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is contraindicated in this circumstance?

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Question 1 of 5

R. R. is a 61-year-old male patient who presents with a chief complaint of fever and urinary symptoms. He was in his usual state of good health when for no apparent reason he developed pain in his back and perineal region, as well as fever and chills. He presents as septic. He had urinary hesitancy and decreased stream but now reports that he has not passed urine in more than 12 hours. Palpation of the lower abdomen is consistent with bladder distention. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is contraindicated in this circumstance?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluoroquinolone antibiotics. In this case, the patient presents with signs of sepsis and urinary retention, which are indicative of a possible prostatic abscess. Administering fluoroquinolone antibiotics could potentially mask the symptoms and delay further evaluation and treatment of the abscess. This can lead to worsening infection and sepsis. Therefore, the AGACNP should avoid prescribing fluoroquinolones until further evaluation is done to confirm or rule out a prostatic abscess. Incorrect choices: A: Digital prostate examination - This could help in assessing the prostate for abscess or other abnormalities. B: Urinary catheterization - Necessary to relieve bladder distention and assess urine output. D: Drainage of prostate abscess - If confirmed, drainage would be the appropriate intervention to address the abscess.

Question 2 of 5

Lester R. is a 58-year-old male who is being evaluated for nocturia. He reports that he has to get up 2 to 3 times nightly to void. Additional assessment reveals urinary urgency and appreciable post-void dribbling. A digital rectal examination reveals a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. The best approach to this patient includes

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assessment of nonprostate causes of nocturia. In this case, the patient's symptoms of nocturia, urinary urgency, and post-void dribbling are not indicative of prostate enlargement. Given that the digital rectal examination revealed a normal-sized prostate with no hypertrophy, it is essential to explore other potential causes of nocturia in this patient. By assessing non-prostate causes of nocturia, such as diabetes, urinary tract infection, medication side effects, or sleep disorders, a more accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan can be developed. This approach will lead to better patient outcomes compared to focusing solely on prostate-related evaluations. Option A: Administration of the AUA Symptom Scale is not the best approach in this case because the patient's symptoms are not primarily related to prostate enlargement. Option B: Laboratory assessment to include a PSA is not necessary since the digital rectal examination already indicated a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. Option C: Ordering a

Question 3 of 5

When counseling a patient about his surgical options for an ulcer that has been refractory to medical therapy, the AGACNP advises the patient that he will need

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D. Some form of vagotomy Rationale: 1. Vagotomy is a surgical procedure that involves cutting the vagus nerve to reduce acid production in the stomach, which can help in treating ulcers. 2. Vagotomy is often recommended when ulcers are refractory to medical therapy, making it an appropriate surgical option. 3. Lifelong vitamin D replacement (A) is not typically necessary for ulcer treatment. Excision of the ulcer (B) is not a common treatment and does not address the underlying cause. Eating smaller meals (C) may help manage symptoms but is not a surgical option for refractory ulcers.

Question 4 of 5

When evaluating a patient with acute pancreatitis, which of the following physical or diagnostic findings is an ominous finding that indicates a seriously illpotentially moribund patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obturator sign. This finding indicates irritation of the peritoneum and is associated with a ruptured appendix, not acute pancreatitis. A: Severe epigastric pain with radiation to the back is a common presentation of acute pancreatitis, but not necessarily indicative of a seriously ill patient. B: Abdominal guarding and rigidity may suggest peritonitis but are not specific to acute pancreatitis. C: Grey Turner sign, bruising of the flanks, is associated with severe pancreatitis but does not necessarily indicate a seriously ill patient.

Question 5 of 5

He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury. Rationale: 1. Physiologic response: Traumatic head injury can lead to autonomic dysregulation, causing increased sympathetic activity and elevated blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion. 2. Compensation mechanism: The body may increase blood pressure in response to hypotension to ensure vital organs receive adequate blood flow. 3. Treatment consideration: Understanding that elevated blood pressure can be a compensatory mechanism helps guide appropriate management strategies for traumatic head injury patients. Summary: A: Vasopressors can be used in traumatic head injury depending on the specific situation, and they are not always contraindicated. B: While hypotension can worsen outcomes in traumatic head injury, this choice overstates the risk without providing context. D: Identifying the cause of hypotension is crucial in managing traumatic head injury patients and should not be disregarded in favor of stabilizing the head injury.

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