ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Quinidine is a Class I antiarrhythmic drug that primarily works by blocking sodium channels in cardiac tissues. The correct answer to the question is C) Auricular fibrillation. Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient with auricular fibrillation because it can lead to an increase in the ventricular rate by blocking the atrioventricular node, thereby allowing more rapid conduction of atrial impulses to the ventricles. Option A) Sick sinus syndrome is incorrect because quinidine is more likely to exacerbate bradycardia in patients with this condition rather than cause paradoxical tachycardia. Option B) Auricular extrasystoles is incorrect because quinidine is used to treat this condition rather than cause paradoxical tachycardia in patients with it. Option D) Ventricular extrasystoles is incorrect because quinidine typically does not cause paradoxical tachycardia in patients with this condition. Understanding the effects of quinidine on different cardiac conditions is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially pharmacists and physicians, to ensure safe and effective treatment of patients with arrhythmias. It is essential to recognize the potential paradoxical responses to antiarrhythmic drugs to avoid worsening the patient's condition.
Question 2 of 5
The client is on a cardio-selective beta blocker. Why might this be ordered?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pharmacology, the selection of a cardio-selective beta blocker is crucial based on the desired therapeutic outcomes and potential adverse effects. The correct answer is C) The client has asthma that would be exacerbated by a non-cardio-selective beta blocker. Asthma is a condition characterized by bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation. Non-cardio-selective beta blockers can lead to bronchoconstriction by blocking beta-2 receptors in the lungs, worsening asthma symptoms. Cardio-selective beta blockers primarily target beta-1 receptors in the heart, minimizing the effect on beta-2 receptors in the lungs and reducing the risk of bronchoconstriction in asthmatic patients. Option A is incorrect because the reason for ordering a cardio-selective beta blocker is not related to blockage of beta receptors in blood vessels. Option B is incorrect as hypotension is a potential side effect of all beta blockers, not just non-cardio-selective ones. Option D is incorrect as hypoglycemia is more commonly associated with non-selective beta blockers due to their interference with glucose metabolism. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind selecting specific beta blockers based on their receptor selectivity is crucial for optimizing patient care and minimizing adverse effects, especially in patients with comorbid conditions like asthma. Healthcare providers need to consider individual patient characteristics and tailor pharmacological treatment to ensure safe and effective therapy.
Question 3 of 5
The client is experiencing a drug-drug interaction with streptokinase and another drug. Which other drug can cause a drug-drug interaction with streptokinase?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of cardiovascular drugs pharmacology, understanding drug-drug interactions is crucial for safe and effective patient care. In this case, the correct answer is C) Heparin. Heparin can interact with streptokinase, a thrombolytic drug used to dissolve blood clots, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Heparin is also an anticoagulant, so when combined with streptokinase, it can potentiate the anticoagulant effects, further increasing the risk of bleeding complications. Option A) Cimetidine is a histamine-2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production and is not known to interact significantly with streptokinase. Option B) Theophylline is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions like asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. It does not typically interact with streptokinase. Option D) Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to treat heart conditions like heart failure and atrial fibrillation. It does not have a known significant drug-drug interaction with streptokinase. Educationally, it is essential for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to prevent adverse effects and ensure patient safety. Understanding the mechanisms of these interactions can help in making informed decisions regarding medication management for patients with cardiovascular conditions.
Question 4 of 5
A 56-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of difficulty urinating. Digital rectal exam reveals an enlarged prostate. The patient is started on a trial of terazosin, after which his symptoms improve dramatically. Which of the following describes terazosin's drug class?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Terazosin belongs to the drug class of α1-adrenergic antagonists. These drugs work by blocking the α1-adrenergic receptors, leading to vasodilation of both arteries and veins. In the case of an enlarged prostate, terazosin helps relax the smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck, improving urinary flow. Option A is correct because terazosin specifically targets α1-adrenergic receptors. Option B, α1‚‚-adrenergic antagonist, is incorrect as there is no such drug class. Option C, anticholinergic drugs, work by blocking acetylcholine receptors and are not related to terazosin's mechanism of action. Option D, ß2‚‚-adrenergic agonists, target different adrenergic receptors and are not relevant to terazosin's function in this scenario. Understanding the pharmacology of cardiovascular drugs like terazosin is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions in managing conditions like benign prostatic hyperplasia. By grasping the specific mechanisms of action of different drug classes, practitioners can optimize patient care and outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
A 63-year-old woman with recurrent migraine headaches wishes to take a ß-blocker only once a day to control her symptoms. Which of the following agents would allow her to achieve this desired effect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Nebivolol. Nebivolol is a long-acting ß-blocker that can be taken once daily, making it an ideal choice for the 63-year-old woman with migraine headaches who desires a once-daily dosing regimen for convenience and adherence. Albuterol (Option A) is a short-acting beta-2 agonist used for quick relief of asthma symptoms and not suitable for migraine prophylaxis. Esmolol (Option B) is an ultra-short-acting beta-blocker used for acute situations like intraoperative hypertension, not for once-daily use in migraine prevention. Labetalol (Option C) is a non-selective beta-blocker with alpha-blocking activity, not typically used for migraine prophylaxis. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of different beta-blockers is essential for selecting the most appropriate agent for individual patient needs. Factors like dosing frequency, side effect profile, and efficacy in specific conditions like migraines must be considered to provide optimal patient care. Selecting the right medication with the desired dosing regimen can improve patient compliance and treatment outcomes.