ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
Pulmonary edema is characterized by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Pulmonary edema is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation. 2. Elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure signifies heart failure, a common cause of pulmonary edema. 3. A rise in pulmonary venous pressure is a consequence of increased hydrostatic pressure. Therefore, all three alterations (A, B, D) are characteristic of pulmonary edema. Option C is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are all individually associated with pulmonary edema and collectively represent the condition.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is explaining the action of insulin to a newly diagnosed diabetic client. During the teaching, the nurse reviews the process of insulin secretion in the body. The nurse is correct when stating that insulin is secreted from the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Insulin is a hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreas. 2. Beta cells are responsible for monitoring blood glucose levels and secreting insulin in response to high glucose levels. 3. Insulin helps regulate blood glucose by facilitating glucose uptake into cells. 4. Adenohypophysis secretes other hormones, not insulin. 5. Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon, not insulin. 6. Parafollicular cells of the thyroid secrete calcitonin, not insulin. Summary: Choice C is correct because insulin is indeed secreted from the beta cells of the pancreas. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not secrete insulin or are related to other hormones.
Question 3 of 9
Which scenario best illustrates the nurse using data validation when making a nursing clinical decision for a patient? The nurse determines to remove a wound dressing when the patient reveals the time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates data validation in nursing clinical decision-making. In this scenario, the nurse considers the patient's self-reported information (time of last dressing change and observation of old and new drainage) as key data points to validate the need for changing the wound dressing. This aligns with the principles of evidence-based practice and ensures that the decision is based on accurate and relevant information. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the systematic validation of data to inform the nursing decision-making process. Choice B relies on family input rather than objective data, Choice C jumps to a treatment decision without confirming the underlying cause, and Choice D does not involve validating the patient's reported symptom before taking action.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a new preoperative patient who is nil by mouth (NPO). The nurse notes that the patient has been on long-term oral steroid therapy. The nurse understands that which of the following is the reason that steroids cannot be abruptly stopped?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because abruptly stopping steroids can lead to adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of the adrenal glands. This can result in a sudden drop in cortisol levels, which are essential for various physiological functions. Patients on long-term steroid therapy need a gradual taper to allow the adrenal glands to resume cortisol production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the physiological effects of stopping steroids abruptly.
Question 5 of 9
What is the focus of a diagnostic statement for a collaborative problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The potential complication. In a collaborative problem, the focus of a diagnostic statement should be on identifying any potential complications that may arise due to the client's condition or treatment. This allows nurses and other healthcare professionals to anticipate and address these complications proactively. A: The client problem - While important, the client problem is usually addressed in the nursing diagnosis rather than the diagnostic statement for a collaborative problem. C: The nursing diagnosis - The nursing diagnosis focuses on the actual or potential health problems that the client is experiencing, which is different from the focus of a diagnostic statement for a collaborative problem. D: The medical diagnosis - The medical diagnosis is the identification of a disease or condition by a healthcare provider, which is not the focus when identifying potential complications in a collaborative problem.
Question 6 of 9
On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, a client exhibits muscle twitching and hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a life- threatening electrolyte disturbance, the nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Following thyroid surgery, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. 2. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include muscle twitching, hyperirritability, numbness, and tingling. 3. These symptoms align with the client's presentation, indicating a probable electrolyte imbalance. 4. Hypocalcemia is a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to parathyroid gland damage. 5. Prompt recognition and treatment of hypocalcemia are essential to prevent severe complications. Summary: B: Hyperkalemia - Not typically associated with thyroid surgery, symptoms differ. C: Hyponatremia - Unlikely post-thyroidectomy, symptoms don't match presentation. D: Hypermagnesemia - Rare post-thyroidectomy, symptoms and electrolyte disturbance don't align.
Question 7 of 9
A client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), an autoimmune disorder, is admitted to an acute care facility. Concerned about hemorrhage, the nurse monitors the client’s platelet count and observes closely for signs and symptoms of bleeding. The client is at greatest risk for cerebral hemorrhage when the platelet count falls below:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20,000/ul. A platelet count below 20,000/ul puts the client at the highest risk for cerebral hemorrhage due to severe thrombocytopenia. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding, especially in critical organs like the brain. Choices A, C, and D have platelet counts that are higher than the critical level of 20,000/ul, so they do not pose as high a risk for cerebral hemorrhage. Option D, 500/ul, is extremely low and would likely lead to severe bleeding, but the critical threshold for cerebral hemorrhage is considered to be around 20,000/ul.
Question 8 of 9
A client is admitted to the ICU, which laboratory result must be reported immediately to the physician?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: platelets 18,000. A critically low platelet count can lead to life-threatening bleeding in the ICU. Normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 450,000. A count of 18,000 indicates severe thrombocytopenia. Immediate reporting is crucial for prompt intervention. Rationale for why other choices are incorrect: A: Hematocrit of 48% is within normal range (male: 42-52%, female: 37-47%). B: paCO2 of 38 mm Hg is within normal range (35-45 mm Hg). D: WBC count of 8000 is within normal range (4000-11000/uL). In critical care settings, it is vital to prioritize and address life-threatening conditions promptly, hence the urgent need to report the critically low platelet count.
Question 9 of 9
A client in the final stages of terminal cancer tells the nurse: “I wish I could be just be allowed to die. I’m tired of fighting this illness. I have lived life a good life. I only continue my chemotherapy and radiation treatment because my family wants me to.” What is the best nurse’s best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Would you like to talk to a psychologist about your thoughts and feelings?" This response acknowledges the client's emotional distress and offers professional support. A psychologist can provide counseling and help the client explore their feelings and concerns about end-of-life decisions. Choice B is incorrect because it assumes the client's spiritual beliefs are the primary concern, neglecting the emotional and psychological aspects. Choice C involves more people in the decision-making process without addressing the client's individual needs. Choice D is dismissive and does not offer any support or explore the client's feelings further. In summary, choice A is the best response because it prioritizes the client's emotional well-being and offers appropriate support through professional counseling.