ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 5
Pulmonary edema is characterized by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Pulmonary edema is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation. 2. Elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure signifies heart failure, a common cause of pulmonary edema. 3. A rise in pulmonary venous pressure is a consequence of increased hydrostatic pressure. Therefore, all three alterations (A, B, D) are characteristic of pulmonary edema. Option C is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are all individually associated with pulmonary edema and collectively represent the condition.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse understands that which of the ff. is a side effect most likely to be reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect is a dry, persistent cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. This is a distinctive side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Acne (A), diarrhea (B), and heartburn (D) are not commonly associated with enalapril use and are less likely side effects.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following BP changes alerts the nurse to increasing ICP, and should be reported immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Widening pulse pressure. This indicates increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) as it signifies a significant difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure. A widening pulse pressure is a key sign of impending herniation and requires immediate intervention. A: Gradual increase does not provide a clear indication of acute changes in ICP. C: Rapid drop followed by gradual increase may suggest other conditions and is not specific to increasing ICP. D: Rapid fluctuations may occur in various scenarios and do not specifically point to increasing ICP. In summary, a widening pulse pressure is the most critical and specific indicator of increasing ICP among the choices provided.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the ff nursing interventions is taken as a precautionary measure if shock develops when a client with a spinal cord injury is hospitalized?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An IV line is inserted to provide access to a vein. In shock, adequate intravenous access is crucial to administer fluids and medications rapidly. This helps stabilize the client's condition by restoring blood volume and improving circulation. Choice B is incorrect as immobilization is not a primary intervention for shock in this scenario. Choice C, traction, is not appropriate for managing shock but rather for stabilizing spinal cord injuries. Choice D, using a turning frame, is not relevant to managing shock and does not address the immediate need for fluid resuscitation.
Question 5 of 5
An adult is to receive an IM injection of Morphine for post op pain. Which of the following is necessary for the nurse to assess prior to giving a narcotic analgesic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Before administering a narcotic analgesic like Morphine, assessing the client's level of alertness and respiratory rate is crucial to ensure they can tolerate the medication without compromising their breathing. Alertness indicates their ability to handle potential side effects, while respiratory rate is vital to monitor for any signs of respiratory depression. Choice B (last meal) is not directly related to giving a narcotic analgesic, although it may impact the absorption rate. Choice C (bowel habits) and last bowel movement are not immediately relevant to assessing the client's readiness for a narcotic analgesic. Choice D (history of addictions) is important but not the priority when assessing for immediate safety and efficacy of the medication.