ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
Pulmonary edema is characterized by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Pulmonary edema is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation. 2. Elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure signifies heart failure, a common cause of pulmonary edema. 3. A rise in pulmonary venous pressure is a consequence of increased hydrostatic pressure. Therefore, all three alterations (A, B, D) are characteristic of pulmonary edema. Option C is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are all individually associated with pulmonary edema and collectively represent the condition.
Question 2 of 9
Why should the nurse closely monitor a client to ensure that the venous access device remains in the vein during a transfusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It minimizes the risk of circulatory overload. When a venous access device dislodges during a transfusion, there is a risk of the infusion going into the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to circulatory overload. This can result in fluid overload and potentially lead to serious complications such as heart failure. Monitoring the device ensures that the medication is delivered safely and effectively into the bloodstream. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. C: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of pulmonary complications, which are not typically associated with a dislodged venous access device. D: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of localized edema embolism, which is a blockage caused by a blood clot, air bubble, or other material in a blood vessel.
Question 3 of 9
A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a class V Pap test finding indicates severe abnormalities, such as high-grade dysplasia or carcinoma in situ. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to undergo a biopsy as soon as possible to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment promptly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a class V result is not normal and requires immediate follow-up, rather than waiting or repeating the Pap test at a later time.
Question 4 of 9
When instructing the client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about diet, the nurse should stress the importance of which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restricting sodium. In hyperparathyroidism, there is an excess of parathyroid hormone leading to increased calcium levels. Sodium can worsen calcium excretion, exacerbating the condition. Restricting sodium can help reduce calcium loss. A: Restricting fluids is not necessary unless the client has kidney issues. B: Forcing fluids may not be beneficial and can lead to fluid overload. D: Restricting potassium is not typically necessary unless the client has kidney issues.
Question 5 of 9
Which scenario best illustrates the nurse using data validation when making a nursing clinical decision for a patient? The nurse determines to remove a wound dressing when the patient reveals the time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates data validation in the nursing clinical decision-making process. The nurse assesses the time of the last dressing change and observes old and new drainage, which are relevant data points for wound care. This approach ensures that the decision to remove the dressing is based on accurate and validated information, leading to appropriate patient care. Choice B is incorrect because it relies on subjective information (increased pain and family request) rather than objective data validation. Choice C is incorrect as it involves a direct request for an order without sufficient data validation. Choice D is incorrect because elevating a leg cast based solely on a patient's report of decreased mobility does not involve thorough data validation related to the specific care needed for the patient's condition.
Question 6 of 9
In assisting a physician to perform a thoracentesis to Mr. Sy, how should the nurse postion a patient with pleural effusion of the left lung?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: sitting at the side of the bed with both arms resting on a locked overbed table. This position allows for better lung expansion and easier access to the thoracic cavity during the procedure. Sitting position helps in maximizing lung volume and facilitates drainage of pleural effusion. Arms resting on a locked overbed table helps the patient maintain a stable position and reduces the risk of movement during the procedure. Other choices are incorrect because supine position (A) may not allow for optimal lung expansion, high fowler's position (C) may not provide easy access to the thoracic cavity, and semi-fowlers position (D) may not facilitate efficient drainage of pleural effusion.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is providing education to a client with newly diagnosed hypertension about the importance of adhering to prescribed medications. Which phase of the nursing process does this activity represent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. In the nursing process, implementation involves carrying out the care plan, interventions, and education that were determined during the planning phase. Providing education to a client about the importance of adhering to prescribed medications falls under this phase as it involves putting the plan into action to promote positive health outcomes. Assessment (A) involves collecting data about the client's condition, Planning (B) involves developing a care plan based on the assessment findings, and Evaluation (D) involves assessing the effectiveness of the interventions implemented.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the ff. actions would the nurse include in the plan of care to reduce the symptoms of the patient who has vertigo?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid sudden movements. Vertigo is a type of dizziness where a person feels like they're spinning or the world around them is spinning. Sudden movements can worsen vertigo symptoms. By avoiding sudden movements, the nurse can help reduce the patient's vertigo symptoms. Avoiding noises (A) may help with other conditions like migraines, but it is not specifically helpful for vertigo. Encouraging fluid intake (B) is important for overall health but does not directly address vertigo symptoms. Administering analgesics (D) may help with pain but will not address the underlying cause of vertigo. Therefore, choosing option C is the most appropriate action to include in the plan of care for reducing vertigo symptoms.
Question 9 of 9
Which antiparkinsonian drug is associated with the on-off phenomenon and the wearing-off effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Levodopa. Levodopa is associated with the on-off phenomenon and wearing-off effect in Parkinson's disease treatment due to fluctuations in its effectiveness over time. The on-off phenomenon refers to sudden and unpredictable changes in motor function, while wearing-off effect occurs when the medication's effects diminish before the next dose. Amantadine (A) is not typically associated with these phenomena. Benztropine (C) is an anticholinergic used for tremors and rigidity. Pramixole (D) is a dopamine agonist that can cause dyskinesias but is not primarily linked to on-off or wearing-off effects.