Psychoanalytic psychology focusmainly on which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Internal conflict and unconscious desir. Freuds psychoanalytic theory emphasizunconscious driv(e.g., id vs. ego) and conflicts shaping behavior. Choice A (biology/genetics) aligns with biological psychology. Choice C (self-esteem/self-actualization) fits humanistic theory (Rogers/Maslow). Choice D (rewards/punishment) is behaviorism (Skinner). (sensation/perception) is cognitive psychology. Bs truth unconscious focus, evident in psychoanalysis (e.g., dream analysis) contrasts with the external or conscious foci of A, C, D, E, making it the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Elevated polymorphonuclear (PMN) cells in CSF indicate an acute inflammatory response, typically seen in bacterial infections or early viral processes. The early phase of aseptic (viral) meningitis often shows a PMN predominance before shifting to lymphocytes, making it the correct answer. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents with lymphocytic predominance, not PMNs, as it is a chronic infection. Fungal meningitis also shows lymphocytrather than PMNs due to its slower progression. Demyelinating diseasand brain or spinal cord tumors may cause mild CSF changes, but not a significant PMN increase, as they are not primarily infectious. The acute nature of PMN elevation aligns with the early viral meningitis phase, distinguishing B as the most fitting choice.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Dandy-Walker malformation involvcystic dilatation of the fourth ventricle , hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis , and often hydrocephalus due to impaired CSF flow, with an enlarged posterior fossa as a hallmark. Herniation of cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum , however, is characteristic of Chiari malformation, not Dandy-Walker. This key distinction make B the exception and correct answer, as it reflects a different pathology unrelated to the posterior fossa cystic changdefining Dandy-Walker. The confusion may arise from overlapping cerebellar issues, but tonsillar herniation is not a feature here.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Trigonocephaly results from premature fusion of the metopic suture , which runs midline on the forehead, causing a triangular skull shape with a pointed forehead. Sagittal suture fusion leads to scaphocephaly (long, narrow skull), coronal suture fusion to brachycephaly or plagiocephaly, and lambdoid suture fusion to posterior plagiocephaly. Multiple suture fusion causcomplex craniosynostosis, not specifically trigonocephaly. The metopic suturunique frontal location directly correlatwith trigonocephalys characteristic ridge and shape, making D the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Absence seizures, brief lapsin awareness, are best treated initially with ethosuximide , which targets T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons, reducing absence seizure frequency with fewer side effects. Valproate is effective but broader-spectrum, used if absence coexists with other seizures, and has more side effects (e.g., weight gain). Lamotrigine is less effective for absence alone, while acetazolamide and clonazepam are secondary options. Guidelin(e.g., NICE) favor ethosuximide for its efficacy and tolerability in typical absence, making A the correct answer over broader or less specific alternatives.