ATI RN
microbiology an evolving science test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Protein A is located in the cell wall of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Protein A is a virulence factor specific to Staphylococcus aureus. This protein binds to the Fc region of immunoglobulins, inhibiting opsonization and phagocytosis. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Coagulase negative staphylococcus (choice A) does not produce Protein A. Micrococcus (choice C) is a different genus and does not possess Protein A. Choice D is incorrect because Protein A is indeed found in Staphylococcus aureus.
Question 2 of 5
Drug of first choice for the treatment of syphilis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Penicillin. Penicillin is the drug of first choice for treating syphilis due to its effectiveness in eradicating the bacterium Treponema pallidum, which causes syphilis. It is the most reliable treatment with well-established efficacy. Gentamicin (A), ciprofloxacin (C), and chloramphenicol (D) are not recommended for treating syphilis as they are not effective against the specific bacteria causing the infection. Penicillin remains the gold standard for syphilis treatment.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with acute food poisoning had fecal cultures grown on Endo agar, resulting in colorless colonies. What microorganism is most likely responsible?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Endo agar is a selective and differential media commonly used to isolate gram-negative bacteria. Step 2: Colorless colonies on Endo agar indicate the absence of lactose fermentation. Step 3: Salmonella is a gram-negative bacterium that does not ferment lactose, leading to colorless colonies on Endo agar. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Salmonella. Summary: B: Escherichia coli ferments lactose, producing pink colonies on Endo agar. C: Staphylococcus is a gram-positive bacterium and would not grow on Endo agar. D: Shigella is a gram-negative bacterium but ferments lactose, resulting in pink colonies on Endo agar.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with abdominal pain and diarrhea had a stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shigella dysenteriae. Shigella causes dysentery, characterized by bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain. Shigella is a non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rod. B: Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not typically associated with abdominal pain and diarrhea. C: Escherichia coli, a common gut bacteria, can cause diarrhea but typically ferments lactose. D: Proteus vulgaris is not a common cause of gastrointestinal infection and is not typically associated with abdominal pain and diarrhea.
Question 5 of 5
Which one is an example of an immunomodulator:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B (Gamma Interferon) is the correct answer: 1. Gamma Interferon is a type of immunomodulator that helps regulate the immune response. 2. It activates macrophages and enhances the immune system's ability to fight infections. 3. Rifampin is an antibiotic, not an immunomodulator. 4. Hexacima and Pentaxim are combination vaccines, not immunomodulators. In summary, Gamma Interferon is the correct answer as it directly influences the immune response, while the other choices are not immunomodulators.