ATI RN
Genitourinary System Diseases Questions
Question 1 of 5
Prostatic hypertrophy occurs frequently in older men. The symptoms that may indicate this problem are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Prostatic hypertrophy causes an enlarged prostate gland. 2. Enlarged prostate can lead to symptoms like straining, loss of force, and sense of residual urine. 3. These symptoms are due to obstruction of the urethra by the enlarged prostate. 4. Polyuria, urgency, dysuria, oliguria, and foul-smelling urine are not typical symptoms of prostatic hypertrophy. Summary: Choice C is correct because it directly relates to the obstructive symptoms caused by prostatic hypertrophy. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the typical symptoms of this condition and are therefore incorrect.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following cephalosporins has activity against gram negative anaerobic bacteria like Bacteroides fragilis, and the only cephalosporins that cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin known for broad-spectrum coverage. 2. It has excellent activity against gram-negative anaerobes such as Bacteroides fragilis. 3. It is also one of the cephalosporins that can penetrate the blood-brain barrier. 4. The other choices do not have the same anaerobic coverage or BBB penetration. Summary: - B: Cefoxitin is a second-generation cephalosporin with anaerobic coverage but does not cross the BBB. - C: Cephalexin is a first-generation cephalosporin with limited anaerobic activity and no BBB penetration. - D: Cefixime is a third-generation cephalosporin with no anaerobic activity or BBB penetration.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following agents is indicated in a 25 year old female is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Valacyclovir. Valacyclovir is a commonly prescribed antiviral medication used to treat genital herpes simplex virus infections. Firstly, it is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral DNA replication, helping to reduce symptoms and prevent outbreaks. Additionally, Valacyclovir is well-tolerated and effective in managing herpes infections in young adults. Choice A, Amantadine, is an antiviral primarily used for treating influenza A virus infections and is not effective against herpes simplex viruses. Choice C, Lamivudine, is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV and hepatitis B infections, not herpes simplex virus infections. Choice D, Zanamivir, is also an antiviral used for treating influenza infections and is not indicated for genital herpes simplex virus infections.
Question 4 of 5
A 40 year old man is HIV positive with CD4 count of 200/ cu.mm . After 2 months of therapy, he develops a peripheral WBC count of 1000 and hemoglobin of 9. Which of the following drugs most likely cause d this hematologic abnormality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zidovudine. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased white blood cell and red blood cell counts. In this case, the patient's peripheral WBC count of 1000 and low hemoglobin after starting therapy are indicative of hematologic abnormalities consistent with zidovudine use. Acyclovir, Foscarnet, and Amantadine do not typically cause bone marrow suppression and are not associated with the hematologic abnormalities seen in this patient.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following antiviral drug most commonly used drug for prevention and treatment of CMV infections in the immunocompromised patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Ganciclovir is the preferred antiviral for CMV infections due to its effectiveness against CMV. 2. It works by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase, stopping viral replication. 3. Indinavir is a protease inhibitor used for HIV, not CMV. 4. Amantadine is used for influenza A virus, not CMV. 5. Foscarnet is an alternative for CMV if ganciclovir is not tolerated.