Propranolol-induced adverse effects include all of the following EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can block beta-2 receptors leading to bronchoconstriction (A). Rapid withdrawal can cause beta-adrenergic receptor supersensitivity (B). Propranolol can cause sedation, sleep disturbances, depression, and sexual dysfunction (D). However, propranolol is associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory depression. After large overdoses of antiseizure drugs, the most dangerous effect is respiratory depression due to the suppression of the central nervous system. This can lead to decreased breathing rate and potentially fatal consequences. Gastrointestinal irritation (B) and alopecia (C) are not typically associated with antiseizure drug overdoses. Sedation (D) may occur but is not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The midbrain periaqueductal gray. This structure plays a crucial role in pain modulation by sending inhibitory signals to the spinal cord. It contains opioid receptors that can reduce pain perception. The hypothalamus (B) is more involved in regulating body functions, the area postrema (C) is primarily responsible for inducing vomiting in response to toxins, and the limbic cortex (D) is associated with emotions and memory, not specifically pain modulation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Butorphanol. Non-narcotic analgesics are medications that relieve pain without producing narcotic effects. Butorphanol is a narcotic analgesic, not a non-narcotic one. Paracetamol (A), Acetylsalicylic acid (B), and Ketorolac (D) are all non-narcotic analgesics commonly used for pain relief without causing narcotic effects. Therefore, the incorrect options are A, B, and D because they are non-narcotic analgesics, unlike Butorphanol.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lithium carbonate. Lithium is the drug of choice for manic-depressive psychosis (now known as bipolar disorder) due to its mood-stabilizing properties. It helps to reduce the frequency and severity of manic episodes. Imipramine (A) is a tricyclic antidepressant, not typically used for bipolar disorder. Chlordiazepoxide (B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and alcohol withdrawal, not for bipolar disorder. Isocarboxazid (C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression, not specifically for bipolar disorder. In summary, lithium is the preferred treatment for bipolar disorder due to its proven efficacy in managing manic episodes.