Production of RNA and DNA is called

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transcription. This is the process where the DNA sequence is copied into an RNA molecule. It is the initial step in gene expression. A: RNA splicing is the process of removing introns from pre-mRNA to create a mature mRNA molecule. B: Translation is the process of synthesizing proteins using the information from mRNA. C: Transposition is the movement of genetic elements within a genome. In summary, transcription specifically refers to the synthesis of RNA from DNA, making it the correct choice compared to the other options.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is a first-line antibiotic for treating pulmonary tuberculosis due to its high efficacy against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It works by inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis. Furasolidone (A) is not commonly used for tuberculosis, Bactrim (B) is not a first-line drug for tuberculosis, and Streptocide (C) is not as effective as Rifampicin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. In this type of reaction, allergens trigger the production of IgE antibodies, leading to mast cell and basophil degranulation and release of inflammatory mediators like histamine. This causes immediate allergic symptoms. Seafood and eggs are common allergens that can elicit this response. B: Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction involves antibodies targeting cell surface or extracellular matrix antigens, leading to cell destruction or dysfunction. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies. C: Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complex deposition in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies. D: Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction is cell-mediated and involves T cells causing inflammation and tissue damage. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridia. Fusiform spore-forming microorganisms that stain violet-blue with Gram's stain are characteristic of Clostridia. Clostridia are anaerobic, rod-shaped bacteria known for their ability to form spores and cause diseases such as tetanus and botulism. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococci are spherical, not fusiform, and typically do not form spores. C: Spirochaete are spiral-shaped bacteria and do not typically form spores. D: Actinomycete are filamentous bacteria that do not typically form spores and do not stain violet-blue with Gram's stain.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct flaming. Direct flaming is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal because it involves passing the metal through a flame to kill microorganisms. The high temperature of the flame effectively destroys any bacteria or spores present on the metal surface. Incineration (A) is not practical for sterilizing metal as it involves burning at extremely high temperatures. Autoclaving (B) uses steam under pressure to sterilize, which is effective but more complex than direct flaming. Indirect heating (D) is not an effective method for sterilizing metal as it does not directly expose the metal to high temperatures required for sterilization.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hantavirus. Hantavirus is considered a newly emerging disease because it was first identified in the late 20th century. It is transmitted to humans through rodents and can lead to severe respiratory illness. Malaria, Tuberculosis, and Chlamydia are not considered newly emerging diseases as they have been known for centuries and continue to be prevalent worldwide. Therefore, based on the timeline of discovery and emergence, Hantavirus is the most recent infectious disease among the options provided.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common etiological factor for community-acquired pneumonia in young adults. The symptoms described align with typical pneumococcal pneumonia presentation. Presence of pleural friction rub and infiltration in the X-ray support the diagnosis. The blood work showing elevated WBC count with a left shift (increased neutrophils and low lymphocytes) and elevated ESR is consistent with a bacterial infection. Legionella and Mycoplasma typically present with atypical pneumonia symptoms such as headache, confusion, and GI symptoms, which are not described in the case. Staphylococcus pneumonia is not a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in young adults.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nucleoid. The bacterial genome is located in the nucleoid, a region within the bacterial cell where the genetic material is condensed and organized. This structure is not the same as a nucleus found in eukaryotic cells. The other choices (B: Nucleotide and C: ATP) are incorrect because nucleotide refers to a building block of DNA or RNA, and ATP is a molecule used for energy transfer in cells, neither of which specifically houses the bacterial genome. Choice D: None of the above is incorrect as well, as the correct term for the compact structure containing the bacterial genome is the nucleoid.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fecal enterococcus. In a drugstore setting, finding a fecal-indicative microorganism like fecal enterococcus indicates a potential contamination from fecal matter, which poses a significant health risk. Staphylococcus aureus (Choice A) and α-haemolytic streptococcus (Choice D) are not typically indicative of fecal contamination. Colon bacillus (Choice B) is a common bacterium found in the gut but is not specifically indicative of fecal contamination. Therefore, choice C, fecal enterococcus, is the most appropriate microorganism indicating unsanitary conditions in a drugstore.