ATI RN
ATI Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Priority nursing interventions when a client is being given warfarin include what?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor the INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is crucial in monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Maintaining the INR within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or bleeding. Monitoring blood pressure (A) is important but not specific to warfarin therapy. Monitoring vitamin K levels (B) is unnecessary as warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring warfarin levels (C) is not typically done as INR is a more accurate reflection of its effects. Therefore, monitoring the INR is the priority intervention for clients on warfarin therapy.
Question 2 of 5
The client is taking gemfibrozil. What contraindication to taking the drug should the nurse tell the client about?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Active gallbladder disease. Gemfibrozil can increase the risk of gallstones and exacerbate gallbladder disease. The nurse should inform the client about this contraindication to avoid potential complications. A: History of MI is not a contraindication to taking gemfibrozil. In fact, gemfibrozil may be prescribed to reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in patients with a history of MI. B: History of elevated triglyceride levels is actually an indication for using gemfibrozil, not a contraindication. D: Taking aspirin with gemfibrozil can increase the risk of bleeding but is not a specific contraindication.
Question 3 of 5
The client has a diastolic murmur. This means that the murmur is heard when in the cardiac cycle?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (Between the S2 and the S1 beat) because a diastolic murmur occurs during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle, which is between the closure of the semilunar valves (S2) and the closure of the atrioventricular valves (S1). This murmur indicates abnormalities in the heart valves during ventricular relaxation. Choices A and C are incorrect because S1 and S2 beats correspond to systole, not diastole. Choice B is incorrect as it would indicate a continuous murmur throughout the cardiac cycle, which is not characteristic of a diastolic murmur.
Question 4 of 5
The client has a heart rate of 70, a slightly irregular rhythm and P waves that come in multiples. What is this rhythm called?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Type 1 second degree AV block. This rhythm is characterized by a slightly irregular rhythm and P waves that come in multiples, indicating a delay in the AV node conduction. In Type 1 second degree AV block, there is a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a P wave is blocked, resulting in a skipped QRS complex. This matches the description given in the question. Choice A (Third degree AV block) is incorrect because in this condition, there is complete blockage of the electrical impulses between the atria and ventricles, resulting in an independent rhythm for both chambers. Choice B (Type 2 second degree AV block) is incorrect because in this condition, there is a consistent PR interval before a blocked P wave without progressive prolongation as seen in the question. Choice D (Junctional escape rhythm) is incorrect as it is characterized by a heart rate originating from the AV junction due to a failure of the SA node,
Question 5 of 5
Which information from a patient helps the nurse confirm the previous diagnosis of chronic stable angina?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because relief of chest pain with nitroglycerin is a hallmark symptom of chronic stable angina. Nitroglycerin dilates blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart, relieving chest pain. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically indicate typical angina symptoms like relief with nitroglycerin, which is crucial in confirming the diagnosis.