Priority Decision: A patient with stage 2 hypertension who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril) and lisinopril (Prinivil) has prazosin (Minipress) added to the medication regimen. What is most important for the nurse to teach the patient to do?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Prazosin is an alpha-adrenergic blocker that can cause orthostatic hypotension. Step 2: Adding prazosin to the regimen can further lower the patient's blood pressure. Step 3: Changing position slowly and avoiding prolonged standing helps prevent dizziness and falls. Step 4: Teaching the patient to change positions slowly is crucial to prevent orthostatic hypotension. Step 5: This education is essential for the patient's safety and well-being.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). PCI is the preferred treatment to open a blocked artery in a patient with a confirmed MI within 90 minutes as it is a minimally invasive procedure that can quickly restore blood flow. Stent placement (A) is part of PCI and can be performed during the procedure. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) (B) is a more invasive surgery usually done in stable patients, not in emergency situations like an acute MI. Transmyocardial laser revascularization (TMR) (D) is not a first-line treatment for acute MI and is typically used in specific cases where other treatments have failed.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Imaging studies. Assessing a patient with an aortic aneurysm requires imaging studies such as ultrasound, CT scan, or MRI to visualize the size, location, and severity of the aneurysm. This helps in determining the appropriate management plan. Pulse check (A) and blood pressure monitoring (B) are important but do not directly provide information about the aneurysm itself. Electrocardiogram (D) is used to assess heart function and rhythm, which may be affected by an aneurysm but does not provide direct visualization of the aneurysm.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (Both A and B) because tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by four defects, including ventricular septal defect and pulmonary stenosis. Surgical management involves repairing these defects to improve blood flow and oxygenation. Option A (Ventricular septal defect) is incorrect because it only addresses one of the defects in tetralogy of Fallot. Option B (Pulmonary stenosis) is also incorrect as it only focuses on another single defect. Option D (None of the above) is incorrect as surgical management typically involves addressing both defects to effectively treat tetralogy of Fallot.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: supine with right leg elevated. Elevating the right leg helps reduce swelling and improve venous return, aiding in managing venous occlusion. Elevating the left leg, as in choice D, would not be effective as it does not target the affected leg. Choices A and B do not specifically address the venous occlusion in the right leg. Positioning Mrs. B. supine with the right leg elevated is the most appropriate choice for improving her condition.