ATI RN
Fundamentals Patient Safety and Wound Care Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Principle of triage for 27 seriously injured in an aircraft accident:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why option D is correct: 1. Triage aims to maximize survivors with available resources. 2. Option D prioritizes producing the greatest number of survivors. 3. It aligns with the principle of maximizing outcomes in mass casualty situations. 4. Focusing on maximizing survivors helps allocate resources efficiently. 5. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not prioritize maximizing survivors and efficient resource utilization.
Question 2 of 5
A 52-year-old woman sustaining 50% total body surface burns in an explosion. She has burns around the chest and both upper arms. Adequate resuscitation is initiate She is nasotracheally intubated and is being mechanically ventilate Her CarboxyHb level is 10%. Her arterial blood gas reveals PaO2 of 40mmHg, PaCO2 of 60mmHg, and pH of 7.25. Appropriate immediate management at the time is to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Ensure adequate tissue perfusion." In this scenario, the patient has inhalational injury with a high CarboxyHb level and severe respiratory acidosis on ABG. Ensuring adequate tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent further tissue damage and improve oxygen delivery to tissues. Increasing fluid resuscitation (B) may worsen the respiratory status. Adding PEEP (C) may be necessary but addressing tissue perfusion is more critical. Reassessing for pneumothorax (D) is important but not the immediate priority in this case.
Question 3 of 5
Which one of the following injuries is addressed in the secondary survey?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Forearm fracture. In the secondary survey of trauma assessment, priority is given to assessing less urgent injuries such as extremity fractures. Forearm fracture falls under this category as it is not immediately life-threatening. The secondary survey focuses on a systematic head-to-toe assessment after stabilizing critical conditions in the primary survey. Choices A, B, and D require immediate attention in the primary survey due to the potential for severe bleeding, compromised circulation, and risk of internal organ injury, respectively. Therefore, these injuries are addressed before moving on to the secondary survey.
Question 4 of 5
A 70 year old suffers blunt chest trauma after being struck by a car. On presentation, his GCS is 15, BP is 145/90, HR is 72. RR is 24 and O2-sat on 5L is 91%. Chest x-ray demonstrates multiple right sided rib fractures. ECG demonstrates normal sinus rhythm with no conduction abnormalities. Management should include:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Monitored i.v analgesia." In this scenario, the patient has blunt chest trauma with rib fractures causing pain. The management should focus on controlling pain to improve respiratory effort and prevent complications like pneumonia. IV analgesia is recommended to provide effective pain relief and improve patient outcomes. Choice A: "Placement of a 22Fr right sided chest tube" is incorrect because there is no indication for chest tube insertion based on the information provided. The patient's vital signs are stable and there are no signs of tension pneumothorax. Choice B: "Serial troponins and cardiac monitoring" is incorrect because there are no indications of cardiac injury based on the normal ECG and the absence of cardiac symptoms. Troponins and cardiac monitoring are not necessary at this point. Choice D: "Thoracic splinting" is incorrect because splinting is not typically recommended for rib fractures in elderly patients. It may restrict respiratory effort and cause more harm
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is part of proper personal grooming by a nursing assistant?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Keeping hair neatly tied back away from the face Rationale: 1. Hair tied back prevents contamination of patient's wounds or medications. 2. Ensures hair doesn't obstruct vision or fall into patient's food. 3. Projects a professional appearance and promotes hygiene. Summary: A - Bathing once every other day may vary depending on individual needs and activities, not a strict grooming standard. B - Applying perfume daily may cause allergies or sensitivities in patients and is not necessary for personal grooming. D - Wearing polished artificial nails can harbor bacteria and is not recommended in healthcare settings for infection control purposes.