Primary immunodeficiency diseases are all of the listed, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gamma globulin, as it is not a primary immunodeficiency disease. Primary immunodeficiency diseases are genetic disorders that affect the immune system's ability to fight infections. A: Glanzmann-Riniker hypergammaglobulinemia is a rare primary immunodeficiency characterized by elevated levels of gammaglobulins. C: Variable hypogammaglobulinemia is a primary immunodeficiency disease where there are fluctuating levels of gammaglobulins. D: Bruton hypogammaglobulinemia, also known as X-linked agammaglobulinemia, is a primary immunodeficiency characterized by a lack of B cells and gammaglobulins. In summary, B is the correct answer as gamma globulin is not a primary immunodeficiency disease, whereas A, C, and D are all examples of primary immunodeficiency diseases affecting gammaglobulins levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters point to Staphylococcus or Micrococcus. 2. Catalase-positive eliminates Streptococcus. 3. Coagulase-positive distinguishes Staphylococcus aureus. 4. Thus, the causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: - B: Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. - C: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative. - D: Micrococcus luteus is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Granuloma formation. In response to tuberculosis antigen (tuberculin), the immune system forms a granuloma at the injection site as a defense mechanism. Granulomas are organized collections of immune cells that wall off the antigen and prevent its spread. This process involves macrophages, T cells, and fibroblasts. Choice A (Cells cytotoxity) is incorrect because tuberculin test does not involve direct cell cytotoxicity. Choice B (Reagin type cytotoxity) is incorrect as reagin type hypersensitivity is associated with allergic reactions, not granuloma formation. Choice D (Immunocomplex cytotoxity) is also incorrect as immunocomplex cytotoxicity refers to tissue damage caused by immune complexes, not granuloma formation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Vibrio cholerae produces the exotoxin responsible for severe diarrhea. It causes cholera by disrupting the normal functioning of the intestines. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not diarrhea. Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat and skin infections. Salmonella enterica causes food poisoning, not severe diarrhea. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cytoplasmic membrane - essential. The cytoplasmic membrane is a crucial structure in bacteria as it regulates the passage of substances in and out of the cell, provides structural support, and is essential for maintaining cell integrity. Without a functional cytoplasmic membrane, bacteria would not be able to survive. A: Nucleus is incorrect because bacteria do not have a true nucleus. B: Capsule - non-essential is incorrect because while the capsule provides protection and helps in adherence, it is not essential for bacterial survival. C: Mitochondria is incorrect because bacteria do not have mitochondria; they generate energy through other mechanisms. In summary, the cytoplasmic membrane is essential for bacterial survival, making it the correct choice among the options provided.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: polyomavirus infections. Polyomavirus infections do not typically recur during pregnancy because once the virus infects the body, it remains latent without causing recurrent infections. In contrast, choices A, B, and C can recur during pregnancy due to their ability to reactivate from latency or reinfect the host. Epstein-Barr virus infections (choice A) can lead to infectious mononucleosis, herpes simplex virus infections (choice B) can cause recurrent genital or oral herpes outbreaks, and streptococcal infections (choice C) can result in recurrent throat or skin infections.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bacillus subtilis. Bacillus subtilis is a Gram-positive bacterium known for forming endospores, which are resistant structures that allow the bacteria to survive harsh conditions like heat, radiation, and desiccation. This ability to form spores helps Bacillus subtilis to endure unfavorable environments. Staphylococcus aureus (A), Pseudomonas aeruginosa (C), and Neisseria gonorrhoeae (D) do not form spores and lack the same level of resistance to extreme conditions as Bacillus subtilis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. Bacillus anthracis is the likely causative agent as it is a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium known to cause ulcerated lesions with associated fever and malaise. Anthrax typically presents with these symptoms and fits the description given in the question. Clostridium perfringens (Choice B) causes gas gangrene and typically presents with different symptoms. Clostridium tetani (Choice C) causes tetanus and is not associated with ulcerated lesions. Bacillus cereus (Choice D) is known for causing food poisoning and does not typically present with the symptoms described in the question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: OSHA. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for setting and enforcing safety standards in the workplace, including bloodborne pathogen training requirements. OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard mandates training for certain at-risk professions to prevent exposure to bloodborne diseases. The CDC (Choice B) focuses on disease prevention and control, not regulatory enforcement. NIA (Choice C) is the National Institute on Aging and not relevant to bloodborne training. WHO (Choice D) is the World Health Organization, which sets global health standards but does not regulate workplace safety in the same capacity as OSHA.