ATI RN
Midwifery Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Presence of severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is associated with hyperacidity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In preeclampsia, epigastric pain is typically associated with liver and/or HELLP syndrome, not hyperacidity. Hyperacidity is more commonly seen in conditions like gastritis or peptic ulcers. Therefore, severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is not related to hyperacidity. Other choices are not applicable as they do not provide relevant information to the question.
Question 2 of 9
The birth weight of a very low birth weight baby ranges between
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (500-1500 gm) because very low birth weight babies typically weigh less than 1500 grams at birth. This range encompasses the common weight range for these babies. Option A (1000-500 gm) is too narrow and excludes babies weighing below 500 grams. Option C (1001-1500 gm) is incorrect as it includes babies weighing over 1500 grams. Option D (1500-2000 gm) is incorrect as it includes babies above the typical weight range for very low birth weight babies.
Question 3 of 9
A correct statement denoting the purpose of vitamin K administration to neonates is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All neonates need vitamin K for activation of thrombokinase. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver, including thrombokinase, which plays a crucial role in blood clotting. In neonates, there is a deficiency of vitamin K due to limited transfer across the placenta and low levels in breast milk. Administering vitamin K at birth helps prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because vitamin K does not directly impact immunity, prevent jaundice, or promote normal gut bacteria growth in neonates.
Question 4 of 9
ed rosy appearance on the face and greatly reduced eliminations are among the features of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. Hyperthermia neonatorum refers to elevated body temperature in newborns. 2. The ed rosy appearance on the face is a common symptom of hyperthermia due to increased blood flow to the skin. 3. Greatly reduced eliminations can be a sign of dehydration associated with hyperthermia. 4. The other choices (hypothermia, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia) do not align with the symptoms described.
Question 5 of 9
What are the key indicators for cesarean section during labor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all three choices are key indicators for cesarean section during labor. Fetal distress indicates the baby is not tolerating labor well. Failure to progress may lead to complications for the mother or baby. Breech presentation increases the risk of complications during vaginal delivery. Therefore, all three indicators warrant consideration for a cesarean section to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.
Question 6 of 9
The AGACNP knows that when evaluating a patient with suspected acute pyelonephritis, which of the following is not a common feature?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pyuria. Pyuria is a common feature in acute pyelonephritis, as it indicates the presence of white blood cells in the urine due to the infection. Fever, CVA tenderness, and gross hematuria are all common features of acute pyelonephritis. Fever is a systemic response to infection, CVA tenderness indicates inflammation of the kidney, and gross hematuria is often seen due to inflammation and damage to the kidney tissue. Therefore, the absence of pyuria would be unexpected in a patient with suspected acute pyelonephritis.
Question 7 of 9
Delivery of the head in a breech presentation is usually accomplished through
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver is the correct answer for delivering the head in a breech presentation. This maneuver involves applying pressure to the fetal head with the fingers in the mouth to flex the head, guiding it through the pelvis. This technique helps prevent hyperextension of the head and facilitates a safe delivery. The Lovset maneuver involves rotating the fetus to disengage the impacted shoulder, not for delivering the head. The Burns Marshall Method is used for delivering the aftercoming head in a breech presentation. The Reverse woodscrew maneuver is a technique to disimpact a shoulder dystocia, not for delivering the head in a breech presentation.
Question 8 of 9
In the management of a low birth weight baby, a thermal controlled environment is aimed at
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facilitation of weight gain. A thermal controlled environment for a low birth weight baby helps in maintaining the baby's body temperature, reducing energy expenditure, and promoting weight gain. This is crucial for the baby's growth and development. Incorrect choices: A: Prevention of infection - While a thermal controlled environment can indirectly help prevent infections by maintaining the baby's health, it is not the primary aim. C: Provision of quality care - Quality care involves multiple aspects beyond just thermal control, so this is not the primary aim. D: Provision of nutrition - Nutrition is important for weight gain, but the thermal controlled environment specifically focuses on regulating the baby's body temperature to support weight gain.
Question 9 of 9
An early sign of a ruptured uterus includes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A ruptured uterus can lead to fetal distress and necessitate a cesarean section. Failure of the cervix to dilate is indicative of a potential uterine rupture, as the uterus may not be able to contract effectively due to the rupture. Maternal dehydration (A), pyrexia (B), and oliguria (C) are not specific signs of a ruptured uterus and may be present in various other conditions. Therefore, failure of the cervix to dilate is the most relevant early sign in this scenario.