ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Online Practice 2023 A Questions
Question 1 of 5
Prescription only medicines are included in :
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Prescription-only medicines are included in Schedule IV of the Controlled Substances Act. Schedule IV controlled substances have a lower potential for abuse compared to drugs in Schedules I, II, and III. These prescription medications still require a prescription from a healthcare provider, but they have a lower potential for abuse and addiction, which allows them to be categorized in Schedule IV. Examples of Schedule IV substances include certain tranquilizers and sedatives like Xanax and Valium.
Question 2 of 5
What is the antidote for Heparin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The antidote for Heparin, which is an anticoagulant medication, is protamine sulfate. Heparin works by inhibiting the body's ability to form blood clots, and an overdose of Heparin can lead to excessive bleeding. Protamine sulfate works by neutralizing the anticoagulant effects of Heparin. This antidote is particularly useful in cases of overdose or when immediate reversal of Heparin's effects is needed, such as during surgery or in emergency situations. Other options listed, such as Warfarin, Insulin, and Naloxone, are not the appropriate antidotes for Heparin toxicity.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is receiving intravenous (IV) potassium supplements. What is the most important nursing implication when administering this drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV potassium must always be diluted in IV fluids and administered via an infusion pump to prevent rapid infusion, which can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Administering undiluted potassium or too quickly can lead to hyperkalemia and cardiac arrest. While central lines (A) are sometimes used, potassium can also be given through a peripheral IV if properly diluted. Chilling potassium (C) is unnecessary and could cause discomfort. Preservatives (D) are not a primary concern with IV potassium administration.
Question 4 of 5
A male patient has been started on a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which information should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 5-alpha reductase inhibitors like finasteride for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) require condom use during intercourse because the drug, present in semen, poses a teratogenic risk to a pregnant partner, potentially causing fetal abnormalities. Storing it securely protects children from exposure, as it's hazardous to developing systems. Blood donation is prohibited during and shortly after use due to residual drug in plasma, risking harm to recipients, especially pregnant women. Heavy exercise isn't restricted-activity doesn't alter its efficacy or safety. Condom use is a priority education point, directly addressing reproductive safety, a unique concern tied to its mechanism and pharmacokinetics.
Question 5 of 5
A 42-year-old man undergoes a neurologic evaluation because of episodes of apparent confusion. Over the past year, the man has experienced episodes during which he develops a blank look on his face and fails to respond to questions. Moreover, it appears to take several minutes before the man recovers from the episodes. Which one of the following best describes this type of seizure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Focal complex partial seizures impair consciousness, causing confusion, unresponsiveness, and a blank stare, lasting minutes with slow recovery, as described. Simple partial seizures preserve awareness with focal symptoms. Tonic-clonic seizures feature convulsions. Absence seizures are brief (seconds) with rapid recovery. Myoclonic seizures involve jerks. The prolonged duration and impaired consciousness align with complex partial seizures' temporal lobe origin and EEG findings, distinguishing it here.