ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Practice Exam 1 Questions
Question 1 of 5
Prescription only medicines are included in :
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Prescription-only medicines are included in Schedule IV of the Controlled Substances Act. Schedule IV controlled substances have a lower potential for abuse compared to drugs in Schedules I, II, and III. These prescription medications still require a prescription from a healthcare provider, but they have a lower potential for abuse and addiction, which allows them to be categorized in Schedule IV. Examples of Schedule IV substances include certain tranquilizers and sedatives like Xanax and Valium.
Question 2 of 5
A patient receiving erythropoietin-stimulating drug has the following laboratory values: hemoglobin, 12.8 mg/dL; platelet count, 148,000/mm2; white blood cell count, 4800/mm2. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's hemoglobin level of 12.8 mg/dL is within the target range for erythropoietin therapy, which is typically 10-12 g/dL. The nurse should continue monitoring the patient and ensure that the hemoglobin does not exceed 12 g/dL, as higher levels can increase the risk of thromboembolic events. Administering additional erythropoietin is unnecessary and potentially harmful. Stopping the medication abruptly is not indicated unless directed by the healthcare provider. Colony-stimulating factors are used to increase white blood cell counts, not hemoglobin levels.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is receiving intravenous (IV) potassium supplements. What is the most important nursing implication when administering this drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV potassium must always be diluted in IV fluids and administered via an infusion pump to prevent rapid infusion, which can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Administering undiluted potassium or too quickly can lead to hyperkalemia and cardiac arrest. While central lines (A) are sometimes used, potassium can also be given through a peripheral IV if properly diluted. Chilling potassium (C) is unnecessary and could cause discomfort. Preservatives (D) are not a primary concern with IV potassium administration.
Question 4 of 5
While teaching a 76-year-old patient about the adverse effects of his medications, the nurse encourages him to keep a journal of the adverse effects he experiences. This intervention is important for the elderly patient because of which alterations in pharmacokinetics?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elderly patients often experience decreased blood flow to the liver due to age-related changes, which can alter drug metabolism and increase the risk of adverse effects. Keeping a journal of adverse effects helps the patient and healthcare provider monitor and manage these effects effectively. Increased renal excretion, alkaline gastric pH, and reduced adipose tissue are less relevant to the need for monitoring adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse's intervention is most important due to altered liver metabolism in elderly patients.
Question 5 of 5
A male patient with blood type AB, Rh factor positive needs a blood transfusion. The Transfusion Service (blood bank) sends type O, Rh factor negative blood to the unit for the nurse to infuse into this patient. The nurse knows that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Type O, Rh-negative blood is considered the universal donor blood and is compatible with all blood types, including AB-positive. This makes it a safe choice in emergencies or when the patient's blood type is unknown. Premedication with diphenhydramine and acetaminophen is not necessary for compatibility but may be used to prevent allergic reactions or fever. Therefore, the nurse can confidently administer this blood product.