Prenatally, malaria parasites hide at the

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Placental bed. Malaria parasites hide in the placental bed during pregnancy to avoid detection by the immune system. This location provides a safe haven for the parasites to survive and replicate without being cleared by the mother's immune response. The placental bed offers a rich blood supply and a favorable environment for the parasites to thrive. Incorrect choices: A: Bone marrow - Malaria parasites do not typically hide in the bone marrow during pregnancy. C: Fetal circulation - Malaria parasites do not hide in the fetal circulation; they primarily reside in the placental bed. D: Uterine muscle - Malaria parasites do not hide in the uterine muscle; the placental bed is the main site of sequestration during pregnancy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entonox. Entonox, a mixture of nitrous oxide and oxygen, is commonly used for inhalational analgesia during labor due to its fast-acting and safe properties. Nitrous oxide provides pain relief without affecting the baby's heart rate or causing sedation. Trilene (B) is not commonly used during labor due to potential side effects on the baby. Oxygen (C) is not an analgesic but is often used in conjunction with Entonox. Nitrous oxide (D) is the active component in Entonox and is the primary analgesic agent in this mixture.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because immediate cesarean is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the safety of the mother and baby. Monitoring for signs of shock is essential to detect any deterioration in the mother's condition. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the mother's hemodynamic status. Option B is incorrect as observation alone may delay necessary interventions. Option C is partially correct as immediate cesarean is necessary but does not address monitoring for shock and fluid resuscitation. Option D is incorrect as continuous monitoring alone is insufficient to manage incomplete uterine rupture.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions are often mistaken for postpartum eclampsia due to similar symptoms such as seizures and altered mental status. Postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, usually within 48 hours, while antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery. Presence of stroke and pre-existing epilepsy are not directly related to convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism. Thus, D is the correct choice as it closely resembles the presentation of convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperbaric oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy involves breathing pure oxygen in a pressurized room, which can help reduce gas cysts in the gastrointestinal tract by increasing oxygen delivery to tissues. This promotes healing and reduces symptoms associated with pneumatosis. A: Several days of oxygen by face mask is not as effective as hyperbaric oxygen therapy in treating pneumatosis, as it does not provide the same level of pressurized oxygen delivery to tissues. C: Surgical resection may be considered in severe cases of pneumatosis where conservative treatments have failed, but it is not the first-line treatment option. D: Treatment of underlying disease is important in managing pneumatosis, but it may not directly address the gas cysts themselves. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy specifically targets the gas cysts to alleviate symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the choices (A, B, and C) are risks associated with cesarean sections. Infection can occur at the incision site, blood loss is a common concern during surgery, and cesarean sections typically have a longer recovery time compared to vaginal delivery. Therefore, all of these risks are potential complications of undergoing a cesarean section. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect individually because they only represent a subset of the risks associated with cesarean sections, while choice D encompasses all potential risks.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because partial response in cancer therapy typically refers to a reduction in tumor size by more than 50%. This reduction indicates some positive effect of the treatment on the tumor. Choice A is incorrect because partial response is not solely based on the percentage of patients demonstrating remission, it is about the tumor response. Choice B is incorrect because survival at 5 years is related to overall survival rate, not specifically to the tumor response. Choice D is incorrect because the conversion from unresectable to resectable is more related to the operability of the tumor, rather than the response to chemotherapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ordering hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression is the appropriate response for hepatic hemangiomas. Biopsy is not recommended due to the risk of bleeding. Surgery is usually not required unless there are complications. Documenting the finding is important but does not address the need for monitoring. Ultrasound allows for non-invasive monitoring of the hemangiomas over time to assess for growth or complications, guiding further management if needed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production leading to hyperglycemia (high glucose) and hypokalemia (low potassium). The high white blood cell count is due to the immunosuppressive effects of cortisol. Option B is incorrect as polycythemia is not typically seen in Cushing's syndrome. Option C is incorrect as low sodium and low potassium are not common findings in Cushing's syndrome. Option D is incorrect as high sodium, high chloride, and high RBCs are not typical features of Cushing's syndrome.