ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Prenatal tuberculosis always leads to neonatal tuberculosis. Clinical features of tuberculosis prenatally include anaemia, intrauterine fetal death, and glycosuria.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) FALSE. Prenatal tuberculosis does not always lead to neonatal tuberculosis. While tuberculosis can be transmitted from mother to baby in utero, not all cases of prenatal tuberculosis result in neonatal tuberculosis. The transmission rate is estimated to be around 10-15%. Clinical features of tuberculosis prenatally do not typically include anaemia, intrauterine fetal death, or glycosuria. Educationally, it is important to understand the nuances of prenatal tuberculosis transmission to provide accurate information to healthcare professionals and patients. By clarifying misconceptions and providing accurate information, healthcare providers can make informed decisions regarding screening, diagnosis, and treatment of tuberculosis in pregnant women and their babies. This knowledge can ultimately lead to better outcomes for both mother and child.
Question 2 of 5
Indicate whether the following statements are TRUE (T) or FALSE (F): a) The most common cause of immediate postpartum haemorrhage is trauma to the genital tract during delivery. b) There are four major principles to follow in the specific management of a mother with immediate postpartum haemorrhage.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer for the given question is B) FALSE. The most common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony, not trauma to the genital tract during delivery. Uterine atony occurs when the uterus fails to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. This is a crucial concept in midwifery and obstetrics as understanding the primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage guides appropriate interventions and management strategies. Option A) TRUE is incorrect because trauma to the genital tract is not the most common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage. Option C) TRUE is incorrect as there are not specifically four major principles to follow in the specific management of a mother with immediate postpartum hemorrhage. Management of postpartum hemorrhage is multifaceted and may involve various interventions depending on the underlying cause. Educationally, it is essential for midwives and healthcare providers to have a thorough understanding of the causes of postpartum hemorrhage to effectively manage this potentially life-threatening condition. By recognizing uterine atony as the primary cause, healthcare professionals can implement appropriate interventions promptly to prevent complications and ensure maternal well-being.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is associated with diazygotic twinning?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and obstetrics, understanding factors related to twinning is crucial. In this question, the correct answer is C) Superfecundation, which is associated with dizygotic twinning. Superfecundation occurs when a woman releases multiple eggs during one ovulatory cycle and these eggs are fertilized by sperm from different acts of sexual intercourse within a short timeframe. This results in the conception of fraternal twins with different biological fathers. A) Conjoined twins are formed when a single fertilized egg fails to separate completely, leading to twins who are physically connected. This is not related to diazygotic twinning. B) Polyhydramnios refers to an excess of amniotic fluid in the amniotic sac, which can be caused by various factors but is not specifically associated with diazygotic twinning. D) Foetus compressus is a term used to describe a fetus that appears compressed due to various conditions such as oligohydramnios or uterine constraints, and is not directly linked to diazygotic twinning. Understanding these concepts is important in midwifery practice as it informs healthcare providers about the different types of twinning, their causes, and potential implications for pregnancy and childbirth. This knowledge enables midwives to provide comprehensive care and support to women expecting twins, ensuring optimal outcomes for both the mother and babies.
Question 4 of 5
Post-partum haemorrhage is likely to lead to acute renal failure due to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of post-partum hemorrhage leading to acute renal failure, the correct answer is C) Hypovolemia leading to tubular necrosis. Post-partum hemorrhage causes a significant loss of blood volume, resulting in hypovolemia. The decrease in blood volume leads to decreased perfusion of the kidneys, causing ischemic injury to the renal tubules, ultimately leading to acute renal failure. Option A) Sheehan's syndrome is incorrect as it is a condition characterized by pituitary necrosis following severe postpartum hemorrhage, leading to pituitary insufficiency, not acute renal failure. Option B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation is incorrect as it is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to excessive clot formation and consumption of clotting factors, but it does not directly cause acute renal failure. Option D) Asherman's syndrome is incorrect as it is a condition characterized by intrauterine adhesions resulting from trauma to the endometrial lining, not directly related to acute renal failure. Understanding the pathophysiology of post-partum hemorrhage and its effects on renal function is crucial in midwifery practice. It highlights the importance of timely intervention to prevent complications such as acute renal failure. Educating midwives on the relationship between hypovolemia and renal function can help improve patient outcomes and ensure appropriate management of post-partum hemorrhage.
Question 5 of 5
Total loss of polarity and fundal dominance leads to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In midwifery practice, understanding the processes that lead to normal and abnormal labor is crucial. The total loss of polarity and fundal dominance in the uterus can lead to a condition known as precipitate labor. This is because without the proper coordination and control provided by polarity and fundal dominance, the contractions of the uterus can become too strong and frequent, leading to rapid progression of labor. Option A, "Precipitate labor," is the correct answer because it directly correlates with the scenario described in the question. It aligns with the pathophysiology of what happens when there is a total loss of polarity and fundal dominance in the uterus. Option B, "Colicky uterus," is incorrect because colicky pain typically refers to spasmodic, crampy pain rather than the sustained, strong contractions seen in precipitate labor. Option C, "Spontaneous labor," is incorrect because while the onset of labor is often spontaneous, the term does not specifically address the loss of polarity and fundal dominance causing rapid labor progression. Option D, "Cervical dystocia," is incorrect because cervical dystocia refers to a situation where the cervix fails to dilate or efface properly, which is different from the scenario described in the question regarding uterine contractions. Understanding the mechanisms of labor progression and the factors that can influence its course is essential for midwives to provide safe and effective care to their clients. By grasping these concepts, midwives can better assess and manage labor complications, ensuring optimal outcomes for both the birthing person and baby.