Prednisolone

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Prednisolone is a corticosteroid commonly used in chemotherapy to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. The correct answer is B) Hyperglycemia, hypokalemia. Prednisolone can cause hyperglycemia by increasing blood sugar levels through various mechanisms such as promoting gluconeogenesis and reducing glucose uptake. It can also lead to hypokalemia by enhancing renal potassium excretion. Option A) Esophagitis and renal impairment is incorrect because these are not common side effects of prednisolone. Prednisolone may cause gastrointestinal upset, but esophagitis is not a typical side effect. Renal impairment is not a direct effect of prednisolone. Option C) Facial pallor is incorrect as prednisolone does not typically cause this symptom. Facial pallor is more commonly associated with anemia or circulatory issues rather than corticosteroid use. Option D) Hyperglycemia, hyperkalemia is incorrect as prednisolone does not cause hyperkalemia. In fact, prednisolone can lead to hypokalemia as mentioned earlier. In an educational context, understanding the side effects of chemotherapy drugs like prednisolone is crucial for nursing students preparing for the NCLEX exam. Recognizing the side effects allows nurses to monitor patients effectively, intervene promptly, and provide safe and holistic care. This question highlights the importance of medication knowledge and the need for nurses to be vigilant in assessing and managing side effects in patients undergoing chemotherapy treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of NCLEX questions on chemotherapy drugs, understanding the characteristics of different penicillin preparations is crucial for safe and effective practice. The correct answer is A) Benzathine penicillin. Benzathine penicillin has the longest duration of action among the options provided. This is due to its formulation, which allows for slow absorption and sustained release in the body. Option B) Sodium penicillin, option C) Potassium penicillin, and option D) Procaine penicillin are incorrect because they do not have the same prolonged duration of action as benzathine penicillin. Sodium and potassium penicillin are typically fast-acting and have shorter half-lives, requiring more frequent dosing. Procaine penicillin also has a shorter duration of action compared to benzathine penicillin. In an educational context, knowing the duration of action of different penicillin preparations is important for nurses and other healthcare professionals administering these drugs. Understanding these differences can help prevent dosing errors, ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes, and minimize the risk of resistance development. It is essential for NCLEX test-takers to grasp these pharmacological principles to provide safe and effective care to patients receiving chemotherapy drugs.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of chemotherapy drugs, the drug of choice in patients allergic to penicillin is Erythromycin. Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that is effective in treating a wide range of bacterial infections. Patients allergic to penicillin may also be allergic to other beta-lactam antibiotics like Imipenem and Cefazolin, which are options A and B. Imipenem is a broad-spectrum carbapenem antibiotic that can cause cross-reactivity in patients allergic to penicillin. Cefazolin is a first-generation cephalosporin antibiotic that may also lead to allergic reactions in penicillin-allergic individuals. Meropenem, option C, is another carbapenem antibiotic similar to Imipenem and can trigger allergic responses in penicillin-allergic patients. Educationally, it is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals, especially those preparing for the NCLEX exam, to understand drug allergies and cross-reactivity to ensure safe and effective patient care. Recognizing alternative antibiotics for patients with penicillin allergies is essential in preventing adverse reactions and providing appropriate treatment. Erythromycin, as a non-beta-lactam antibiotic, is a suitable alternative for these patients, making it the correct choice in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Aminoglycoside. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin and neomycin, can potentiate the effects of skeletal muscle relaxants leading to increased muscle weakness or respiratory depression. This interaction can be dangerous during surgery as it can compromise the patient's ability to breathe properly or respond to changes in anesthesia. Rifampicin (A) is an antibiotic used in tuberculosis treatment and does not have significant interactions with skeletal muscle relaxants. Ciprofloxacin (C) is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic and Penicillin (D) is a beta-lactam antibiotic, neither of which are known to pose a risk of interaction with skeletal muscle relaxants. Educationally, understanding drug interactions is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals to ensure patient safety. Knowledge of potential interactions between medications can help prevent adverse events and improve patient outcomes. It is important to always consider a patient's complete medication regimen, including antibiotics, when planning surgical interventions to mitigate risks and provide optimal care.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the best drug for treating a 10-year-old boy with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency and typhoid fever is Amoxicillin (Option C). This choice is based on several factors: 1. **Safety in G6PD deficiency**: Amoxicillin is safe to use in patients with G6PD deficiency, unlike certain other antibiotics which can cause hemolysis in these individuals. This makes it a suitable choice for this specific patient population. 2. **Efficacy against typhoid fever**: Amoxicillin is effective against the bacteria causing typhoid fever, making it a suitable treatment option for this infection. Explanation for why the other options are incorrect: - **A) Co-trimoxazole**: This antibiotic combination is not recommended in patients with G6PD deficiency due to the risk of hemolysis. - **B) Ciprofloxacin**: While ciprofloxacin is effective against typhoid fever, it is contraindicated in patients with G6PD deficiency due to the risk of hemolysis. - **D) Chloramphenicol**: Although chloramphenicol is effective against typhoid fever, it is associated with a risk of causing aplastic anemia, making it a less favorable choice compared to amoxicillin in this case. Educational context: Understanding the appropriate selection of antibiotics based on patient factors such as age, underlying conditions like G6PD deficiency, and the specific infection is crucial in clinical practice. This case emphasizes the importance of considering individual patient characteristics when making treatment decisions to ensure both safety and efficacy. It also highlights the significance of knowing the contraindications and risks associated with different medications, especially in vulnerable populations.