ATI RN
Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
Precipitate labour is an unusually rapid labour
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Precipitate labor is defined as unusually rapid labor. 2. Option A states that it is concluded in less than three hours, aligning with the definition. 3. Option B talks about cervical dilation, which is not a defining factor of precipitate labor. 4. Option C contradicts the definition as it mentions a duration longer than three hours. 5. Option D mentions poor uterine contractions, which are not characteristic of precipitate labor. Summary: Option A is correct because it aligns with the definition of precipitate labor being rapid, while the other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of precipitate labor.
Question 2 of 9
An inorganic risk factor to birth injuries includes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fetal macrosomia. Fetal macrosomia, which refers to a baby being significantly larger than average, is an inorganic risk factor for birth injuries because it can lead to difficult delivery and increase the risk of birth trauma such as shoulder dystocia. Maternal short stature (A) is a biological risk factor, not inorganic. Prenatal oligohydramnios (B) refers to low levels of amniotic fluid and is a maternal condition, not an inorganic factor. External cephalic version (C) is a procedure to turn a breech baby and is not a risk factor for birth injuries.
Question 3 of 9
In myelodysplastic syndromes, the primary indications for splenectomy include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Portal hypertension. In myelodysplastic syndromes, splenectomy is indicated primarily for portal hypertension due to extramedullary hematopoiesjson in the spleen, leading to increased blood flow and pressure in the portal vein. This can alleviate symptoms such as ascites and variceal bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as major hemolysis, massive splenomegaly, and sustained leukocyte elevation are not primary indications for splenectomy in myelodysplastic syndromes.
Question 4 of 9
enna is a 41-year-old female who presents to the emergency room complaining of sudden hearing loss. She is generally very healthyshe denies any significant medical history, and her only daily medication is a combined oral contraceptive. She does admit that she is just getting over a head cold, but other than that she offers no relevant history. A comprehensive history and physical examination results in a diagnosis of sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) of unknown origin. The AGACNP knows that the next step in the patients management should include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperbaric oxygen. SSHL is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy increases oxygen delivery to the inner ear, potentially reversing the hearing loss. Acyclovir (A) is used for viral infections, not SSHL. Furosemide (B) is a diuretic used for treating fluid retention, not SSHL. Warfarin (C) is an anticoagulant and is not indicated for SSHL. In summary, hyperbaric oxygen is the appropriate choice for managing SSHL due to its potential to improve oxygen delivery to the inner ear.
Question 5 of 9
Precipitate labour is an unusually rapid labour
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Precipitate labor is defined as unusually rapid labor. 2. Option A states that it is concluded in less than three hours, aligning with the definition. 3. Option B talks about cervical dilation, which is not a defining factor of precipitate labor. 4. Option C contradicts the definition as it mentions a duration longer than three hours. 5. Option D mentions poor uterine contractions, which are not characteristic of precipitate labor. Summary: Option A is correct because it aligns with the definition of precipitate labor being rapid, while the other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of precipitate labor.
Question 6 of 9
Which one of the following features is indicative of an abnormal labour pattern?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presence of the Bandl's ring. This is indicative of an abnormal labor pattern as it may suggest a uterine rupture, which is a serious complication. Bandl's ring is a constriction ring formed between the upper and lower uterine segments due to excessive uterine contractions. It can lead to fetal distress and necessitate immediate medical intervention. A: Presence of the retraction ring is a normal phenomenon during labor, marking the boundary between the lower and upper uterine segments. C: Cervical canal short and thin can be a normal variation in labor and does not necessarily indicate an abnormal pattern. D: Vagina being warm and moist is a common physiological response during labor and does not provide information on the progress or abnormality of labor.
Question 7 of 9
The MAIN aim of encouraging plenty of fluids to a postnatal client with urinary tract trauma is to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Postnatal clients with urinary tract trauma are at risk of dehydration due to increased fluid loss. Step 2: Encouraging plenty of fluids helps maintain hydration levels. Step 3: Proper hydration supports kidney function and aids in flushing out bacteria, reducing infection risk. Step 4: Adequate hydration also promotes tissue healing and prevents complications. Step 5: Therefore, the main aim of encouraging plenty of fluids is to keep the client well hydrated.
Question 8 of 9
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who reportedly fell down a flight of steps. Her history is significant for several emergency room visits, but she denies any significant medical conditions. Some documentation in her chart indicates that she may have been subjected to physical abuse. Today she presents with a periorbital ecchymosis of the left eye and swelling in the left side of the face. Her neurologic examination is within normal limits. Which head imaging study would be most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Radiographs. Radiographs, specifically skull X-rays, are most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this case. Radiographs can detect fractures, such as skull fractures or facial bone fractures, which are common in cases of physical abuse. These fractures may not always be clinically evident but can be identified on X-rays. Explanation of other choices: B: CT scan without contrast - While a CT scan can provide detailed imaging of the head, it may not be necessary in this case as the patient's neurologic examination is within normal limits. Also, radiographs are more cost-effective and can detect fractures effectively. C: MRI - MRI is not typically used as the first-line imaging modality for suspected head trauma due to its cost and time-consuming nature. Radiographs are more appropriate for initial evaluation. D: PET scan - PET scans are used to detect metabolic activity in tissues and are not typically indicated for assessing acute traumatic injuries like fractures associated with
Question 9 of 9
Which one of the following signs is indicative of possible shoulder dystocia during delivery?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal head retracts against the perineum. This sign indicates possible shoulder dystocia as it suggests the baby's shoulders are impacted and unable to pass through the birth canal. The retraction of the fetal head against the perineum is a classic sign of shoulder dystocia, which requires specific maneuvers to dislodge the shoulders and facilitate delivery. A: Failure of internal rotation of the head is not specific to shoulder dystocia. C: Gentle traction should not be applied in cases of shoulder dystocia as it can worsen the situation. D: The occiput restituting towards the left side is not a sign of shoulder dystocia, as it refers to the rotation of the fetal head during delivery.