Precipitate labour is an unusually rapid labour

Questions 64

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Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 9

Precipitate labour is an unusually rapid labour

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Precipitate labor is defined as unusually rapid labor. 2. Option A states that it is concluded in less than three hours, aligning with the definition. 3. Option B talks about cervical dilation, which is not a defining factor of precipitate labor. 4. Option C contradicts the definition as it mentions a duration longer than three hours. 5. Option D mentions poor uterine contractions, which are not characteristic of precipitate labor. Summary: Option A is correct because it aligns with the definition of precipitate labor being rapid, while the other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of precipitate labor.

Question 2 of 9

Perception and reaction to labor pain is highly influenced by

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - Culture and level of education. Culture influences beliefs about pain and coping mechanisms. Education can affect understanding of pain and pain management techniques. Labor preparedness and fatigue (A) may impact pain perception but are not as influential. Age (C) alone does not determine pain perception. Number of deliveries and anxiety (D) can play a role but are not as significant as culture and education.

Question 3 of 9

The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Observation. As an AGACNP, observation is crucial for monitoring the progression of the condition before considering any invasive treatments. Hyperextension casting (B) and Jewett brace (C) are more specific interventions for spinal conditions and not typically indicated for this scenario. Surgical intervention (D) is typically considered only if conservative treatments fail, making it a last resort option. Therefore, observation allows for a conservative approach to assess the patient's response to initial management before considering more aggressive interventions.

Question 4 of 9

In the preoperative assessment of a patient for the likelihood of postoperative risk, ascorbic acid deficiency, anemia, and volume contraction are all risk factors for

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D: Atelectasis): 1. Ascorbic acid deficiency can lead to impaired collagen synthesis, affecting lung tissue integrity. 2. Anemia reduces oxygen-carrying capacity, increasing the risk of lung collapse. 3. Volume contraction can lead to decreased lung compliance, predisposing to atelectasis. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Prolonged intubation is more related to airway issues, not specifically affected by the mentioned risk factors. B: Thromboembolism is more linked to blood clotting issues rather than the mentioned risk factors. C: Delayed wound healing is more influenced by nutritional deficiencies and blood flow, not directly linked to lung complications like atelectasis.

Question 5 of 9

The AGACNP is rounding on a patient following splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura. On postoperative day 2, a review of the laboratory studies is expected to reveal

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased MCV. Following splenectomy, there is a compensatory increase in red blood cell production, leading to an increase in Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) due to the release of larger, younger red blood cells into circulation. This is known as stress erythropoiesis. Summary: B: Increased Hgb - Hgb levels may not necessarily increase post-splenectomy as it depends on factors such as bleeding or hydration status. C: Increased platelets - Platelet count is not expected to increase immediately post-splenectomy. D: Increased albumin - Albumin levels are not directly influenced by splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.

Question 6 of 9

The term used to describe pure fetal blood loss that occurs following a ruptured vasa praevia is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal exsanguination. This term accurately describes the process of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia. Exsanguination refers to severe blood loss leading to death. In this context, it specifically denotes the loss of fetal blood due to the rupture of vasa praevia, which can be fatal for the fetus. A: Fetal extra-versation is not a recognized medical term and does not accurately describe the scenario presented in the question. C: Velamentous bleeding refers to a condition where fetal blood vessels are unprotected by the umbilical cord and run through the amniotic membranes, not specifically related to ruptured vasa praevia. D: Fetal hemorrhage is a general term for fetal blood loss and does not specifically address the situation of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia.

Question 7 of 9

Which one of the following is a characteristic of fetal post-maturity syndrome?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Wrinkled, peeling skin. Post-maturity syndrome occurs when a pregnancy extends beyond 42 weeks, causing the baby to lose the protective layer of vernix caseosa, leading to dry, peeling skin. Closed eyes and being unusually alert (A) are not specific to post-maturity syndrome. Long, frail fingernails (B) are not a typical characteristic of post-maturity. Excess vernix caseosa (D) is actually a characteristic of a premature baby, not a post-mature one.

Question 8 of 9

Vaginal delivery is possible in

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Face presentation. Vaginal delivery is possible in face presentation as the fetus is in a position where the face is presenting first, allowing for delivery. In this presentation, the chin is usually tucked onto the chest, making it easier for the baby's head to pass through the birth canal. A: Brow presentation is incorrect because it indicates the baby's head is extended slightly, making it more difficult for vaginal delivery. C: Shoulder presentation is incorrect as it can lead to a shoulder dystocia, making vaginal delivery dangerous and difficult. D: Unstable lie is incorrect because it refers to the baby being in a transverse position, making vaginal delivery impossible without intervention.

Question 9 of 9

Janet is a 54-year-old female who is in the ICU following hepatic resection due to metastatic disease. She is expected to move to a general medical floor today. Morning labs are as follows serum bilirubin approximately 2 gdL, albumin 3.1 gdL, and prothrombin time 20 seconds. AST and ALT are 85 and 99 respectively. The appropriate response would be to

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infuse albumin and fresh frozen plasma. Given Janet's post-hepatic resection status and abnormal lab values indicating liver dysfunction (elevated bilirubin, low albumin, prolonged prothrombin time, elevated AST and ALT), she is at risk for coagulopathy and hypoalbuminemia. Infusing albumin can help improve her oncotic pressure and fluid balance, while fresh frozen plasma can replenish clotting factors to address the prolonged prothrombin time. This intervention aims to stabilize her condition before transferring to the general medical floor. Canceling the transfer (Choice A) is not necessary if appropriate interventions can be taken. Repeating labs the next day (Choice C) delays potentially needed treatments. Preparing for reoperation (Choice D) is not indicated based on the information provided.

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