ATI RN
Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
Precipitate labour is an unusually rapid labour
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Precipitate labor is defined as unusually rapid labor. 2. Option A states that it is concluded in less than three hours, aligning with the definition. 3. Option B talks about cervical dilation, which is not a defining factor of precipitate labor. 4. Option C contradicts the definition as it mentions a duration longer than three hours. 5. Option D mentions poor uterine contractions, which are not characteristic of precipitate labor. Summary: Option A is correct because it aligns with the definition of precipitate labor being rapid, while the other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of precipitate labor.
Question 2 of 9
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who reportedly fell down a flight of steps. Her history is significant for several emergency room visits, but she denies any significant medical conditions. Some documentation in her chart indicates that she may have been subjected to physical abuse. Today she presents with a periorbital ecchymosis of the left eye and swelling in the left side of the face. Her neurologic examination is within normal limits. Which head imaging study would be most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Radiographs. Radiographs, specifically skull X-rays, are most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this case. Radiographs can detect fractures, such as skull fractures or facial bone fractures, which are common in cases of physical abuse. These fractures may not always be clinically evident but can be identified on X-rays. Explanation of other choices: B: CT scan without contrast - While a CT scan can provide detailed imaging of the head, it may not be necessary in this case as the patient's neurologic examination is within normal limits. Also, radiographs are more cost-effective and can detect fractures effectively. C: MRI - MRI is not typically used as the first-line imaging modality for suspected head trauma due to its cost and time-consuming nature. Radiographs are more appropriate for initial evaluation. D: PET scan - PET scans are used to detect metabolic activity in tissues and are not typically indicated for assessing acute traumatic injuries like fractures associated with
Question 3 of 9
Diabetes in pregnancy predisposes a mother to developing vulvovaginitis due to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Low acidity levels which favor growth of candida albicans. During pregnancy, hormonal changes can lead to increased vaginal pH, creating a more alkaline environment that promotes the growth of candida albicans, causing vulvovaginitis. Choice A is incorrect as E. coli thrives in alkaline environments. Choice C, existing chronic hypertension, is unrelated to the development of vulvovaginitis. Choice D, lowered osmotic pressure, does not directly influence the growth of candida albicans.
Question 4 of 9
T. S. is a 31-year-old female who is admitted following a catastrophic industrial accident. She had multiple injuries, and after a 10-day hospital stay that included several operations and attempts to save her, she is declared brain dead. She had an organ donor notation on her drivers license. Which of the following circumstances precludes her from serving as a liver donor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A long history of alcohol use. In this case, T. S. is brain dead and has a donor notation. However, a long history of alcohol use can lead to liver damage, making her liver unsuitable for donation. Encephalopathy (A) is a brain disorder but does not necessarily impact liver suitability. Hepatitis C infection (B) can affect the liver, but it doesn't automatically disqualify someone from being a donor. Biliary cirrhosis (D) refers to a specific liver condition, but it does not preclude someone from being a liver donor unless it has severely damaged the liver beyond use.
Question 5 of 9
How does maternal age impact pregnancy risks?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because both statements A and C are true. Older mothers have a higher risk of developing preeclampsia due to age-related complications. Additionally, advanced maternal age is associated with an increased likelihood of requiring a cesarean section due to factors like decreased uterine elasticity. Statement B is incorrect as younger mothers are not at higher risk of miscarriage compared to older mothers. This is because maternal age is not a significant factor in miscarriage risk.
Question 6 of 9
A patient admitted for management of sepsis is critically ill and wants to talk with a hospital representative about donating her organs if she dies. She has a fairly complex medical history that includes traumatic brain injury, breast cancer, and dialysis-dependent renal failure. The patient is advised that she is ineligible to donate due to her
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Breast cancer. The patient's breast cancer is the reason she is ineligible to donate organs. Breast cancer is a contraindication for organ donation due to the risk of cancer transmission to the recipient. Traumatic brain injury (choice B) and renal failure (choice A) are not absolute contraindications to organ donation. Gram-negative infection (choice C) may temporarily disqualify the patient but can be treated, unlike breast cancer. In summary, breast cancer poses the highest risk of organ recipient harm compared to the other medical conditions listed.
Question 7 of 9
enna is a 41-year-old female who presents to the emergency room complaining of sudden hearing loss. She is generally very healthyshe denies any significant medical history, and her only daily medication is a combined oral contraceptive. She does admit that she is just getting over a head cold, but other than that she offers no relevant history. A comprehensive history and physical examination results in a diagnosis of sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) of unknown origin. The AGACNP knows that the next step in the patients management should include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperbaric oxygen. SSHL is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy increases oxygen delivery to the inner ear, potentially reversing the hearing loss. Acyclovir (A) is used for viral infections, not SSHL. Furosemide (B) is a diuretic used for treating fluid retention, not SSHL. Warfarin (C) is an anticoagulant and is not indicated for SSHL. In summary, hyperbaric oxygen is the appropriate choice for managing SSHL due to its potential to improve oxygen delivery to the inner ear.
Question 8 of 9
S. R. is a 51-year-old male patient who is being evaluated for fatigue. Over the last few months he has noticed a marked decrease in activity tolerance. Physical examination reveals a variety of ecchymoses of unknown origin. The CBC is significant for a Hgb of 10.1 gdL, an MCV of 72 fL and a platelet count of 65,000L the remainder of the CBC is normal. Coagulation studies are normal, but bleeding time is prolonged. The AGACNP recognizes that initial management of this patient will include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Splenectomy. In this case, the patient presents with signs of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) with low platelet count and bleeding time prolongation. Splenectomy is the definitive treatment for ITP as the spleen is the site of platelet destruction. Avoiding elective surgery and medications (choice A) may be necessary to prevent bleeding complications but do not address the underlying issue. Prednisone (choice B) is used for acute treatment but not for long-term management. Monoclonal antibody therapy (choice C) is an option for refractory cases but not first-line therapy.
Question 9 of 9
Which one of the following features is indicative of an abnormal labour pattern?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presence of the Bandl's ring. This is indicative of an abnormal labor pattern as it may suggest a uterine rupture, which is a serious complication. Bandl's ring is a constriction ring formed between the upper and lower uterine segments due to excessive uterine contractions. It can lead to fetal distress and necessitate immediate medical intervention. A: Presence of the retraction ring is a normal phenomenon during labor, marking the boundary between the lower and upper uterine segments. C: Cervical canal short and thin can be a normal variation in labor and does not necessarily indicate an abnormal pattern. D: Vagina being warm and moist is a common physiological response during labor and does not provide information on the progress or abnormality of labor.