ATI RN
Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
Precipitate labor is an unusually rapid labor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because precipitate labor is defined as labor that is concluded in less than three hours. This rapid progression can lead to complications such as increased risk of tearing and fetal distress. Choice A is incorrect because it describes a different condition where the cervix fails to dilate despite good contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the definition of precipitate labor. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a scenario where the cervix fails to dilate due to poor uterine contractions, which is not characteristic of precipitate labor. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer based on the definition and characteristics of precipitate labor.
Question 2 of 9
While participating in sports, it is not uncommon for people to be subjected to sudden rotational injuries that result in the abrupt rotation of the cerebral cortex around the more fixed midbrain structures. This can interrupt input and outflow from the reticular activating system and result in what clinical phenomenon?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epidural hematoma. 1. Sudden rotational injuries can cause tearing of the middle meningeal artery, leading to an epidural hematoma. 2. The hematoma can compress the brain, disrupting the reticular activating system, causing altered consciousness. 3. Uncal herniation (B) involves herniation of the uncus, not rotation-related. 4. Concussion (C) is a mild traumatic brain injury, not directly related to rotational injuries. 5. Contrecoup injury (D) is when the brain impacts the opposite side of the skull due to sudden deceleration, not rotation-induced.
Question 3 of 9
How does maternal age impact pregnancy risks?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because both statements A and C are true. Older mothers have a higher risk of developing preeclampsia due to age-related complications. Additionally, advanced maternal age is associated with an increased likelihood of requiring a cesarean section due to factors like decreased uterine elasticity. Statement B is incorrect as younger mothers are not at higher risk of miscarriage compared to older mothers. This is because maternal age is not a significant factor in miscarriage risk.
Question 4 of 9
Ms. OReilly is a 69-year-old patient who is having a bowel resection for a malignant tumor of the right colon. She has several chronic medical conditions and takes numerous daily medications, including metoprolol 100 mg daily, warfarin 5 mg daily, vitamin E 200 units daily, and metformin 1000 mg bid. Which of the following regimens is the most appropriate approach to managing her medications preoperatively?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. It is important to manage medications appropriately preoperatively to minimize complications. Metoprolol, a beta blocker, should be continued up until the day of surgery to prevent rebound hypertension or tachycardia. Metformin should be held on the day of surgery to avoid potential lactic acidosis due to its effects on kidney function. Warfarin should be discontinued 5-7 days before surgery to reduce the risk of bleeding. Vitamin E can increase bleeding risk and should be discontinued. Choice A is incorrect as not all medications should be taken until the morning of surgery. Choice C is incorrect as warfarin should be held earlier than 5 days before surgery. Choice D is incorrect as metformin should be held on the day of surgery, regardless of blood sugar levels, to prevent lactic acidosis.
Question 5 of 9
Three (3) types of breech presentation:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank breech, complete breech, footling breech. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are aimed at the birth canal with legs flexed at the hips and extended at the knees. In a complete breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are aimed at the birth canal with legs flexed at the hips and knees. In a footling breech presentation, one or both of the baby's feet are positioned to come out first. These are the three main types of breech presentations. Choices B, C, and D do not accurately describe the different types of breech presentations, making them incorrect.
Question 6 of 9
A non-pharmacological measure of pain relief in labour includes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diamorphine. Diamorphine is a non-pharmacological measure of pain relief in labor. It is a type of opioid analgesic that helps to reduce pain during labor. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, altering the perception of pain. Rationale: 1. Diamorphine is a medication that directly targets pain relief. 2. It is a commonly used non-pharmacological measure in labor settings. 3. Diamorphine does not involve the use of any gases or inhalants like Entonox (A) or Cyclothane (B). 4. Homeopathy (D) is based on the principle of treating "like with like" using highly diluted substances and is not typically used for pain relief in labor. Summary: A: Entonox and B: Cyclothane are incorrect because they are pharmacological measures involving the use of gases or inhalants. D: Homeopathy is
Question 7 of 9
Diabetes in pregnancy predisposes a mother to developing vulvovaginitis due to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Low acidity levels which favor growth of candida albicans. During pregnancy, hormonal changes can lead to increased vaginal pH, creating a more alkaline environment that promotes the growth of candida albicans, causing vulvovaginitis. Choice A is incorrect as E. coli thrives in alkaline environments. Choice C, existing chronic hypertension, is unrelated to the development of vulvovaginitis. Choice D, lowered osmotic pressure, does not directly influence the growth of candida albicans.
Question 8 of 9
The major causative organism of urinary tract infection during puerperium is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Escherichia coli. During puerperium, the most common causative organism of urinary tract infection is E. coli. This is because E. coli is a normal flora in the gastrointestinal tract and can ascend to the urinary tract due to factors like hormonal changes, reduced bladder tone, and trauma during delivery. Staphylococcus pyogenes (Choice A), Anaerobic streptococci (Choice B), and Clostridium welchii (Choice C) are not typically associated with urinary tract infections during puerperium. Staphylococcus pyogenes is more commonly known for causing skin infections, Anaerobic streptococci are not commonly implicated in urinary tract infections, and Clostridium welchii is associated with gas gangrene, not urinary tract infections.
Question 9 of 9
What is the significance of amniotic fluid analysis during pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess fetal lung maturity. Amniotic fluid analysis measures the levels of substances like surfactant, which indicates lung maturity. This helps in determining if the fetus is ready for delivery. Other choices are incorrect because amniotic fluid analysis is not primarily used to detect fetal infections (A), determine fetal position (C), or assess placental health (D). These functions are typically achieved through other diagnostic tests or imaging techniques.