Precipitate labor is an unusually rapid labor

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Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 9

Precipitate labor is an unusually rapid labor

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because precipitate labor is defined as labor that is concluded in less than three hours. This rapid progression can lead to complications such as increased risk of tearing and fetal distress. Choice A is incorrect because it describes a different condition where the cervix fails to dilate despite good contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the definition of precipitate labor. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a scenario where the cervix fails to dilate due to poor uterine contractions, which is not characteristic of precipitate labor. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer based on the definition and characteristics of precipitate labor.

Question 2 of 9

Precipitate labour is an unusually rapid labour

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Precipitate labor is defined as unusually rapid labor. 2. Option A states that it is concluded in less than three hours, aligning with the definition. 3. Option B talks about cervical dilation, which is not a defining factor of precipitate labor. 4. Option C contradicts the definition as it mentions a duration longer than three hours. 5. Option D mentions poor uterine contractions, which are not characteristic of precipitate labor. Summary: Option A is correct because it aligns with the definition of precipitate labor being rapid, while the other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of precipitate labor.

Question 3 of 9

The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Observation. As an AGACNP, observation is crucial for monitoring the progression of the condition before considering any invasive treatments. Hyperextension casting (B) and Jewett brace (C) are more specific interventions for spinal conditions and not typically indicated for this scenario. Surgical intervention (D) is typically considered only if conservative treatments fail, making it a last resort option. Therefore, observation allows for a conservative approach to assess the patient's response to initial management before considering more aggressive interventions.

Question 4 of 9

The last part to be replaced in uterine inversion is the

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fundus. In uterine inversion, the uterus is turned inside out, with the fundus protruding through the cervix. The fundus is the last part to be replaced during the reduction process because it is the uppermost part of the uterus. The cervix, isthmus, and body are other parts of the uterus that are not the last to be replaced in uterine inversion. The cervix is the lower part, the isthmus is the narrow portion, and the body is the main part of the uterus. Hence, the fundus is the correct choice for the last part to be replaced in uterine inversion.

Question 5 of 9

Diabetes in pregnancy predisposes a mother to developing vulvovaginitis due to

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Low acidity levels which favor growth of candida albicans. During pregnancy, hormonal changes can lead to increased vaginal pH, creating a more alkaline environment that promotes the growth of candida albicans, causing vulvovaginitis. Choice A is incorrect as E. coli thrives in alkaline environments. Choice C, existing chronic hypertension, is unrelated to the development of vulvovaginitis. Choice D, lowered osmotic pressure, does not directly influence the growth of candida albicans.

Question 6 of 9

In the preoperative assessment of a patient for the likelihood of postoperative risk, ascorbic acid deficiency, anemia, and volume contraction are all risk factors for

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D: Atelectasis): 1. Ascorbic acid deficiency can lead to impaired collagen synthesis, affecting lung tissue integrity. 2. Anemia reduces oxygen-carrying capacity, increasing the risk of lung collapse. 3. Volume contraction can lead to decreased lung compliance, predisposing to atelectasis. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Prolonged intubation is more related to airway issues, not specifically affected by the mentioned risk factors. B: Thromboembolism is more linked to blood clotting issues rather than the mentioned risk factors. C: Delayed wound healing is more influenced by nutritional deficiencies and blood flow, not directly linked to lung complications like atelectasis.

Question 7 of 9

Convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism are confused for:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions can mimic postpartum eclampsia due to similarities in symptoms such as seizures and hypertension. However, the key differentiator is the timing of onset - postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, while amniotic fluid embolism typically occurs during labor or immediately postpartum. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the timing and clinical presentation of amniotic fluid embolism. Antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery, stroke presents with neurological deficits, and pre-existing epilepsy is a chronic condition unrelated to the immediate postpartum period.

Question 8 of 9

Which one of the following signs is indicative of possible shoulder dystocia during delivery?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal head retracts against the perineum. This sign indicates possible shoulder dystocia as it suggests the baby's shoulders are impacted and unable to pass through the birth canal. The retraction of the fetal head against the perineum is a classic sign of shoulder dystocia, which requires specific maneuvers to dislodge the shoulders and facilitate delivery. A: Failure of internal rotation of the head is not specific to shoulder dystocia. C: Gentle traction should not be applied in cases of shoulder dystocia as it can worsen the situation. D: The occiput restituting towards the left side is not a sign of shoulder dystocia, as it refers to the rotation of the fetal head during delivery.

Question 9 of 9

A general principle in surgical oncology is that the best approach to curative surgery in a fixed tumor requires

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adjuvant therapies. Adjuvant therapies are additional treatments given after the primary treatment, usually surgery, to reduce the risk of cancer recurrence. In the context of fixed tumors, adjuvant therapies can help target any remaining cancer cells that may not have been completely removed during surgery, thus improving the chances of a successful outcome. En bloc resection (A) is important for complete tumor removal but may not always be feasible in fixed tumors. Neoadjuvant therapies (C) are given before surgery and are not typically used for fixed tumors. Elective lymph node dissection (D) may be necessary in some cases but is not the best approach for curative surgery in fixed tumors.

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