ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Postural Hypotension is A drop in systolic pressure less than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because postural hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg or a drop in diastolic blood pressure of greater than 10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing from a sitting or supine position. Therefore, a drop in systolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg when changing from lying to sitting is indicative of postural hypotension. Choice B is incorrect as postural hypotension is primarily defined by changes in systolic blood pressure, not diastolic. Choice C is incorrect because a drop in diastolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg is not the defining characteristic of postural hypotension. Choice D is not provided.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following communication methods is not an option for a patient following laryngectomy surgery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because learning esophageal speech involves creating sound by pushing air from the mouth into the esophagus and then releasing it. Following laryngectomy surgery, the patient's larynx is removed, making it impossible to produce sound in this manner. Placing a finger over the stoma (A) allows the patient to redirect air through the mouth for speech, using a picture board (B) enables communication through written or visual cues, and using a special valve that diverts air into the trachea (C) allows for voice rehabilitation. In summary, options A, B, and C are valid communication methods post-laryngectomy surgery, while option D is not feasible due to the absence of the larynx.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the ff. positions is best for a chest drainage system when the patient is being transported by wheelchair?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hanging the chest drainage system on the top of the wheelchair backrest ensures that the system remains upright and secured during transportation, reducing the risk of accidental disconnection or leakage. Placing it on the patient's feet (B), hanging it with the IV pole (C), or placing it in the patient's lap (D) can lead to potential complications such as pulling or kinking the drainage tubing, increasing the risk of infection or injury to the patient.
Question 4 of 5
Why are older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases susceptible to thrombophlebitis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IV drugs and chemicals. Thrombophlebitis is inflammation of a vein with blood clot formation, commonly caused by irritants like IV drugs. Impaired mobility (C) and compromised circulation (D) are risk factors for thrombophlebitis, but not specific to older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases. A is incorrect as not all choices apply in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is admitted with a 2-month history of fatigue, SOB, pallor, and dizziness. The patient is diagnosed with idiopathic autoimmune haemolytic anemia. On reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse notes which of the following that confirms this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: RBC fragments. In idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the immune system attacks and destroys red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. The presence of RBC fragments in the blood smear confirms this diagnosis as it indicates mechanical damage to RBCs. Explanation: 1. RBC fragments (schistocytes) are a hallmark of hemolysis, seen in conditions like autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 2. Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs (Choice B) are typically seen in iron deficiency anemia, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 3. Macrocytic, normochromic RBCs (Choice C) are characteristic of megaloblastic anemias like vitamin B12 deficiency, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 4. Hemoglobin molecules (Choice D) are not directly indicative of autoimmune hemolytic anemia; the presence of free hemoglobin in the blood would suggest intrav