ATI RN
Drugs for Peripheral Nervous System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Postural hypotension is a common adverse effect of which one of the following types of drugs ?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is B) Alpha-receptor blockers. Postural hypotension, also known as orthostatic hypotension, is a common adverse effect of alpha-receptor blockers due to their mechanism of action which leads to vasodilation and subsequent decrease in blood pressure upon standing up. A) ACE inhibitors primarily work by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II leading to vasodilation, but they are not typically associated with postural hypotension as seen with alpha-receptor blockers. C) Arteriolar dilators cause vasodilation which can lead to a drop in blood pressure, but they are not as commonly associated with postural hypotension as alpha-receptor blockers. D) ß1-selective receptor blockers primarily affect the heart and are more commonly associated with bradycardia and heart block rather than postural hypotension. Educationally, understanding the side effects of different classes of drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when prescribing medications and managing patient care. Recognizing the specific adverse effects associated with each drug class can help in monitoring patients for potential complications and taking appropriate actions to mitigate risks.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is a vasodilator drug used for hypertension that lacks a direct effect on autonomic receptors but may provoke anginal attacks?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is option B) Hydralazine. Hydralazine is a vasodilator drug used for hypertension that lacks a direct effect on autonomic receptors. It works by directly relaxing the smooth muscles of blood vessels, leading to vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure. However, one of the potential side effects of hydralazine is that it may provoke anginal attacks due to its vasodilatory effects on coronary arteries. Now, let's discuss why the other options are incorrect: A) Amyl nitrite: Amyl nitrite is a vasodilator used to treat cyanide poisoning and certain heart conditions, but it is not commonly used for hypertension. C) Isosorbide mononitrate: Isosorbide mononitrate is a nitrate drug used to prevent angina (chest pain) in patients with coronary artery disease. It works by dilating blood vessels and reducing the workload of the heart. D) Nifedipine: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that is also used to treat hypertension. It works by relaxing blood vessels and reducing the heart's workload. Nifedipine does not provoke anginal attacks; instead, it is used to prevent them. Educational Context: Understanding the mechanism of action and side effects of vasodilator drugs used for hypertension is crucial for healthcare professionals. By knowing which drugs can potentially provoke angina, healthcare providers can make informed decisions when prescribing medications to patients with hypertension and comorbid conditions like coronary artery disease. This knowledge helps ensure patient safety and effective management of cardiovascular conditions.
Question 3 of 5
At rest, the interior of the typical mammalian neuronal axon potential is approximately mV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) -70 mV. This is known as the resting membrane potential of a typical mammalian neuronal axon. The resting membrane potential is the electrical charge difference across the neuronal membrane when the neuron is not sending any signals. Option A) 0 mV is incorrect because neurons do not have a resting membrane potential of 0 mV. Option C) -100 mV is incorrect as it is too hyperpolarized for a typical resting membrane potential. Option D) -20 mV is also incorrect as it is not the standard resting potential for neurons. Understanding the resting membrane potential is crucial in neuroscience and pharmacology as it plays a vital role in the transmission of nerve impulses. It is essential for maintaining the excitability of neurons and is influenced by various ions such as sodium, potassium, and chloride. Educationally, knowing the resting membrane potential helps students comprehend the basics of neuronal function and how drugs targeting the peripheral nervous system can affect this important physiological parameter. This knowledge is fundamental for understanding the mechanisms of action of drugs used in treating conditions related to the peripheral nervous system.
Question 4 of 5
A 16-year-old-girl is found to have paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate. The antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Adenosine. In cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia, adenosine is the antiarrhythmic of choice due to its mechanism of action. Adenosine works by activating adenosine receptors in the heart, specifically in the AV node, leading to a transient block in conduction. This helps to interrupt the reentrant pathway causing the tachycardia, restoring normal sinus rhythm. Option B) Amiodarone is a broad-spectrum antiarrhythmic drug that is more commonly used for ventricular arrhythmias and atrial fibrillation/flutter, rather than AV nodal tachycardia in young patients. Option C) Flecainide is not typically used in AV nodal tachycardia as it can exacerbate conduction through the AV node and worsen the arrhythmia. Option D) Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can be used for AV nodal tachycardia, but adenosine is preferred in acute cases due to its rapid onset of action. Educationally, it is important to understand the specific mechanisms of action of different antiarrhythmic drugs and their appropriate use in different types of arrhythmias to provide optimal patient care. Recognizing the correct drug for a specific arrhythmia can help in effective management and improve patient outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following diuretics would be most useful in a patient with cerebral edema?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of treating cerebral edema, the most appropriate diuretic from the options provided is Mannitol (Option C). Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that works by drawing water into the renal tubules, thereby reducing intracranial pressure and cerebral edema. It is particularly useful in situations like cerebral edema where rapid reduction of intracranial pressure is necessary. Acetazolamide (Option A) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic that is more commonly used in conditions like glaucoma and altitude sickness, not specifically for cerebral edema. Amiloride (Option B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in conditions such as hypertension and heart failure, but not typically indicated for cerebral edema. Furosemide (Option D) is a loop diuretic that is more commonly used for conditions like heart failure, pulmonary edema, and hypertension. While furosemide can help reduce overall fluid volume in the body, it is not the ideal choice for managing cerebral edema due to its mechanism of action and efficacy in this specific context. In an educational context, understanding the specific mechanisms of action and indications for different diuretics is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions in clinical practice. By grasping the rationale behind choosing Mannitol over other diuretics for cerebral edema, healthcare providers can optimize patient care and outcomes in conditions involving intracranial pressure management.