ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventaiblairbto.croym /atessst istance that produces which of the following conditions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventilation where pressure is maintained in the lungs at the end of expiration. This helps prevent alveolar collapse and improves oxygenation. Option A is incorrect because PEEP does not deliver a full preset tidal volume with each breath initiation. Option B is incorrect because tidal volume in PEEP is not solely determined by the patient's ability to generate negative pressure. Option C is incorrect because in PEEP, breaths are delivered irrespective of the patient's respiratory drive.
Question 2 of 9
Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient with a right radial arterial line indicates a need for the nurse to take immediate action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a cooler right hand may indicate compromised circulation, potentially due to arterial occlusion or clot formation. This could lead to inadequate perfusion and tissue damage. Immediate action is needed to assess and address the cause. Choice B is incorrect because a MAP of 77 mm Hg is within the normal range for most patients and does not require immediate action. Choice C is incorrect as delivering 3 mL of flush solution per hour is an appropriate rate and does not indicate a need for immediate action. Choice D is incorrect as the flush bag and tubing being changed 3 days ago does not necessarily indicate an immediate issue with the arterial line function.
Question 3 of 9
The patient undergoes a cardiac catheterization that requires the use of contrast dyes during the procedure. To detect signs of contrast-induced kidney injury, the nurse should
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because evaluating the patient's serum creatinine for up to 72 hours after the procedure is crucial in detecting contrast-induced kidney injury. An increase in serum creatinine levels indicates impaired kidney function due to the contrast dye. This monitoring allows for early detection and intervention to prevent further kidney damage. Choice A is incorrect because a decrease in urine output is a late sign of kidney injury and may not be present in the early stages. Choice C is incorrect as a renal ultrasound is not typically used to detect contrast-induced kidney injury. Choice D is incorrect as postvoid residual volume assessment is not specific to detecting intrarenal injury related to contrast dye use.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with severe neurological impairment following a massive stroke. The primary care provider has ordered tests to detearbmirbi.ncoem b/treasit n death. The nurse understands that criteria for brain death includes what crite ria? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of cerebral blood flow. Brain death is determined by the irreversible cessation of all brain functions, including blood flow to the brain. When there is no cerebral blood flow, the brain is unable to function, leading to brain death. This criterion is essential in diagnosing brain death as it indicates a complete loss of brain function. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: - B: Absence of brainstem reflexes on neurological examination is a common sign of brain death, but it is not the primary criterion. - C: Presence of Cheyne-Stokes respirations is not indicative of brain death. It is a pattern of breathing that can be seen in various conditions, not specifically brain death. - D: Confirmation of a flat electroencephalogram is a supportive test for brain death but not the primary criterion. The absence of brain activity on an EEG can help confirm brain death but is not as definitive as the absence of cerebral blood flow.
Question 5 of 9
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventaiblairbto.croym /atessst istance that produces which of the following conditions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventilation where pressure is maintained in the lungs at the end of expiration. This helps prevent alveolar collapse and improves oxygenation. Option A is incorrect because PEEP does not deliver a full preset tidal volume with each breath initiation. Option B is incorrect because tidal volume in PEEP is not solely determined by the patient's ability to generate negative pressure. Option C is incorrect because in PEEP, breaths are delivered irrespective of the patient's respiratory drive.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) after falling through the ice while ice skating. Which assessment will the nurse obtain first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Body temperature. In a patient who has fallen through the ice, hypothermia is a major concern due to exposure to cold water. Assessing body temperature first is crucial to determine the severity of hypothermia and guide immediate interventions. Heart rate, breath sounds, and level of consciousness can be affected by hypothermia but are secondary assessments. Assessing body temperature is the priority to address the most life-threatening issue first.
Question 7 of 9
A child is receiving maintenance intravenous (IV) fluids at the rate of 1000 mL for the first 10 kg of body weight, plus 50 mL/kg per day for each kilogram between 10 and 20. How many milliliters per hour should the nurse program the infusion pump for a child who weighs 19.5 kg?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the IV fluids for a 19.5 kg child: 1. For the first 10 kg: 1000 mL 2. For the weight between 10-20 kg: (19.5 kg - 10 kg) * 50 mL/kg = 475 mL Total IV fluids = 1000 mL + 475 mL = 1475 mL To convert to mL per hour: 1475 mL / 24 hours = ~61 mL/hr Therefore, the correct answer is B (61 mL/hr). Incorrect Choices: A (24 mL/hr): Incorrect, as it doesn't consider the additional fluids for the weight between 10-20 kg. C (73 mL/hr) and D (58 mL/hr): Incorrect, as these values are not obtained from the correct calculation based on the given formula.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with hypotension and an elevated temperature after working outside on a hot day is treated in the emergency department (ED). The nurse determines that discharge teaching has been effective when the patient makes which statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I should drink sports drinks when working outside in hot weather." This statement is correct because hypotension and elevated temperature could indicate dehydration and electrolyte imbalance due to excessive sweating in hot weather. Drinking sports drinks can help replenish electrolytes lost through sweating and prevent dehydration. Incorrect choices: A: Taking salt tablets can lead to an imbalance in electrolytes and worsen the condition. B: Acetaminophen can lower fever but does not address dehydration or electrolyte imbalance. D: Moving to a cool environment when feeling confused is important but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
Question 9 of 9
The VALUE mnemonic is a helpful strategy to enhance communication with family members of critically ill patients. Which of the following statements describes a VALUE strategy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acknowledge family emotions. This is a key component of the VALUE strategy as it emphasizes empathy and understanding towards the emotions that family members may be experiencing during a difficult time. By acknowledging their emotions, healthcare providers can build trust and establish a supportive relationship with the family. Choice A is incorrect because the VALUE strategy focuses on treating family members as integral members of the care team, not just as guests. Choice C is incorrect as learning about family structure and function is important but not specifically part of the VALUE strategy. Choice D is incorrect as using a trained interpreter is important for effective communication but is not specific to the VALUE mnemonic.