ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Pneumatosis, or gas cysts, may form in the wall anywhere along the gastrointestinal tract in some cases, they will produce symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, diarrhea with mucus, and excess flatulence. Treatment of pneumatosis most often involves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperbaric oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is the most effective treatment for pneumatosis as it helps to reduce gas cysts by increasing oxygen levels in the tissues. This promotes healing and resolution of the condition. A: Several days of oxygen by face mask - Regular oxygen therapy is not as effective as hyperbaric oxygen in treating pneumatosis. C: Surgical resection - Surgical resection is not typically the first-line treatment for pneumatosis and is usually reserved for severe cases or complications. D: Treatment of underlying disease - While treating the underlying disease is important, it may not directly address the gas cysts in the gastrointestinal tract. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy targets the gas cysts specifically.
Question 2 of 5
T. O. is a 44-year-old female patient who presents for evaluation of sudden, severe upper abdominal pain. She is clear about the onset, which was profound and occurred approximately one hour ago. She denies that the onset had any relationship to food or eating, and she denies nausea or vomiting. On examination, she is lying on her right side with her hips and knees flexed to draw her knees to her chest. Vital signs are stable, but examination reveals involuntary guarding. The abdomen is painful and tympanic to percussion in all quadrants. CBC reveals a white blood cell count of 15,600L. The AGACNP suspects
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pancreatitis. The clinical presentation of sudden, severe upper abdominal pain not related to food intake, along with the patient's position (lying on right side with hips and knees flexed), and presence of involuntary guarding suggest acute pancreatitis. The elevated white blood cell count indicates an inflammatory process. Dissecting aortic aneurysm (A) typically presents with abrupt, severe chest or back pain radiating to the abdomen, with signs of shock. Perforated peptic ulcer (C) presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain often related to food intake, with signs of peritonitis. Mallory-Weiss tear (D) presents with hematemesis after forceful or prolonged vomiting.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with chronic hepatic encephalopathy is being discharged home. Discharge teaching centers upon long-term management strategies to prevent ammonia accumulation. Teaching for this patient includes instruction about
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protein intake of 50 g daily. In hepatic encephalopathy, reducing protein intake helps decrease ammonia production. Excessive ammonia leads to neurological symptoms. Lactulose (choice A) is correct for hepatic encephalopathy as it helps eliminate ammonia through the gut. Spironolactone (choice B) is a diuretic and not indicated for hepatic encephalopathy. Zolpidem (choice D) is a sleep aid and not relevant to managing ammonia accumulation. In summary, choice C is correct because it directly targets the underlying issue of ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy, while the other choices do not address this specific concern.
Question 4 of 5
In which form of hypospadias should circumcision be deferred in order to preserve the prepuce for later surgical repair?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In ventral displacement hypospadias, circumcision should be deferred to preserve prepuce for later surgical repair as the prepuce is needed for reconstruction. The prepuce can be used as a tissue graft to correct the hypospadias. In proximal displacement, the urethral opening is closer to the scrotum, making prepuce preservation less critical. Midscrotal hypospadias and meatus proximal to the corona do not typically involve prepuce preservation for surgical repair.
Question 5 of 5
Janet is a 54-year-old female who is in the ICU following hepatic resection due to metastatic disease. She is expected to move to a general medical floor today. Morning labs are as follows serum bilirubin approximately 2 gdL, albumin 3.1 gdL, and prothrombin time 20 seconds. AST and ALT are 85 and 99 respectively. The appropriate response would be to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prepare for reoperation. Given the patient's elevated AST and ALT levels after hepatic resection, along with abnormal prothrombin time and low albumin, there is concern for liver dysfunction. This indicates a potential complication post-surgery, such as hepatic insufficiency or failure, necessitating reoperation for further evaluation and management. Cancelling the transfer (A) would delay necessary intervention. Infusing albumin and fresh frozen plasma (B) would address only the symptoms but not the underlying cause. Repeating labs the next day (C) would not address the urgency of the situation.