ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction Tortora Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Planned mass vaccination of all newborn 5-7 day old children against tuberulosis plays an important role in tuberculosis prevention. In this case the following vaccine is applied:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guerin). BCG is the vaccine used for tuberculosis prevention, not only for newborns but also for older children and adults. BCG helps in protecting against severe forms of tuberculosis in infants. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine (choice B) is for protection against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not tuberculosis. Diphtheria and tetanus anatoxin vaccine (choice C) provides protection against diphtheria and tetanus, not tuberculosis. Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine (choice D) is specifically for diphtheria, not tuberculosis. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it is the only vaccine related to tuberculosis prevention.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with fever and enlarged lymph nodes had a blood smear examined under the microscope. Spiral microorganisms with pointed ends were detected. What is the likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilis. Spiral microorganisms with pointed ends are characteristic of Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. This bacterium is known for its corkscrew shape. Other choices are incorrect because Leptospirosis, Lyme disease, and Relapsing fever are caused by different pathogens and do not exhibit spiral microorganisms on blood smears. Syphilis should be suspected in the presence of these specific spiral microorganisms.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing peptic ulcers?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is known to be the primary cause of peptic ulcers by colonizing the stomach lining and causing inflammation. It produces urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid and has a flagellum for mobility. Escherichia coli (A) is mainly associated with foodborne illnesses. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) causes strep throat and skin infections. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (D) causes tuberculosis, a respiratory infection. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct choice for peptic ulcers based on its unique characteristics and pathogenicity.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has got pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On examination: shaky gait is evident, the tongue is coated with white deposit. The pulse is frequent. The painful lymphatic nodes are revealed in the axillary area. The skin over the lymph nodes is erythematous and glistering. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute purulent lymphadenitis. The symptoms described indicate an acute bacterial infection of the lymph nodes. The presence of painful lymph nodes, erythema, and shiny appearance of the skin overlying the nodes suggest an inflammatory process. The rise in temperature and frequent pulse indicate an active infection. The white-coated tongue may be a sign of systemic involvement. The shaky gait may indicate systemic toxicity. Bubonic plague (A) presents with buboes, not just painful lymph nodes. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a type of lymphoma and would not present with these acute bacterial infection symptoms. Anthrax (D) typically presents with a black eschar and is less likely in this context.
Question 5 of 9
A patient ill with amebiasis was prescribed a certain drug. The use of alcohol together with this drug is contraindicated because the drug inhibits metabolism of ethyl alcohol. What drug is it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is known to inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in alcohol metabolism. 2. Inhibition of this enzyme leads to accumulation of acetaldehyde, causing unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed. 3. This reaction is known as the disulfiram-like reaction. 4. Reserpine, Clonidine, and Diazepam do not have this specific mechanism of action. Summary: - Option A (Metronidazole) is correct due to its inhibition of alcohol metabolism. - Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not exhibit this interaction with alcohol metabolism.
Question 6 of 9
The degree or extent of disease-evoking power that a microorganism has is referred to as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: virulence. Virulence refers to the degree or extent of disease-evoking power that a microorganism possesses. This term specifically describes the ability of a microorganism to cause disease in a host. It is a crucial factor in understanding the pathogenicity of different microorganisms. Choice B: strength is incorrect because it does not specifically relate to the disease-causing potential of a microorganism. Choice C: resistance refers to the ability of an organism to withstand the effects of a particular agent, such as a drug or environmental factor. Choice D: competence is not directly related to the disease-causing ability of a microorganism, but rather refers to the ability of an organism to perform a specific function effectively.
Question 7 of 9
All of the following are ways the kidney are used for urine formation and drug clearance except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tubular filtration. The kidney does not perform tubular filtration as a method for urine formation and drug clearance. The process of urine formation involves filtration, secretion, and reabsorption. Filtration occurs at the glomerulus, where blood is filtered to form the initial filtrate. Tubular secretion involves the active transport of substances from the blood into the renal tubules to be eliminated in urine. Tubular reabsorption is the process of reclaiming useful substances from the filtrate back into the blood. Therefore, tubular filtration is not a valid process in urine formation and drug clearance, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are essential processes in urine formation and drug clearance.
Question 8 of 9
A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and swelling in the neck area, where eventually a small abscess appeared. On section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored, in the purulent masses there are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthoma cells, and macrophages detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Actinomycosis. Actinomycosis is a chronic suppurative bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, which form sulfur granules in purulent masses surrounded by dense fibrous tissue. In this case, the presence of fungal druses, plasma cells, xanthoma cells, and macrophages in the histological examination is characteristic of actinomycosis. The clinical presentation of skin redness, swelling, and abscess formation in the neck area also aligns with actinomycosis. Choice A: Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, presenting with a painless chancre at the site of infection, not skin redness and swelling in the neck area. Choice B: Carbuncle is a bacterial skin infection involving a group of hair follicles, typically on the back of the neck, not characterized by fungal druses or sulfur granules. Choice D: Leprosy
Question 9 of 9
Variola virus of the orthopoxvirus family causes the acute, highly contagious disease:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: I'm sorry, but there seems to be a mistake in the question provided. The correct answer should be A: smallpox. Variola virus indeed causes smallpox, not jock itch. Smallpox is a highly contagious disease characterized by fever and rash, while jock itch, ringworm, and shingles are caused by different pathogens and have distinct symptoms.