ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Placental parasitation is associated with
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Placental parasitation is associated with Malaria prenatally because the Plasmodium parasite can infect the placenta through the bloodstream, leading to severe complications for both the mother and the fetus. This infection can result in low birth weight, preterm birth, and even stillbirth. Candidiasis, Tuberculosis, and Multiple gestation are not directly associated with placental parasitation. Candidiasis is a fungal infection, Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection, and Multiple gestation refers to carrying more than one fetus during pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Malaria prenatally, due to the direct impact of Plasmodium parasite on the placenta and its implications on pregnancy outcomes.
Question 2 of 9
Causes of puerperal pyrexia are entirely obstetrically related.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Puerperal pyrexia refers to fever occurring after childbirth. Step 2: Causes can be obstetric (infection) or non-obstetric (e.g., urinary tract infection). Step 3: Non-obstetric causes are also common postpartum. Step 4: Therefore, puerperal pyrexia is not entirely obstetrically related. Step 5: Hence, the correct answer is B (FALSE).
Question 3 of 9
The PRIORITY health message to share with a client in the recovery room immediately following cesarean section includes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Importance of early ambulation. After a cesarean section, early ambulation is crucial to prevent complications like blood clots and promote circulation. It helps prevent post-operative complications. Choice A is important for respiratory health but not the priority right after surgery. Choice B focuses on perineal care which is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is important, but recognizing signs of infection can wait until the client is more stable. Early ambulation is key to preventing complications and aiding in recovery.
Question 4 of 9
Three (3) complications of breech presentation:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Breech presentation increases risks during childbirth. Prolonged labor is common due to the position of the baby. Umbilical cord prolapse occurs when the cord slips through the cervix before the baby, leading to oxygen deprivation. Shoulder dystocia happens when the baby's shoulders get stuck during delivery. Choice A is correct as it directly relates to complications of breech presentation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the complications associated with breech presentation. Cesarean delivery is often recommended for breech presentation to avoid complications. Uterine rupture is a rare but severe complication that is not directly caused by breech presentation. Preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and low birth weight are not commonly associated with breech presentation. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer.
Question 5 of 9
The recommended number of chest compressions for neonatal resuscitation is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 60 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute. In neonatal resuscitation, the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio is 3:1. This means 3 compressions are given followed by 1 breath. With a target compression rate of 120 per minute, this translates to 60 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute. Each compression should be at a depth of about one-third the anterior-posterior diameter of the chest. This ratio and rate are crucial for maintaining adequate circulation and oxygenation during neonatal resuscitation. Choice B: 3 compressions coordinated with 1 breath per minute is too slow and would not provide enough support for the neonate's circulation. Choice C: 1 compression coordinated with 3 breaths per minute would not provide sufficient compressions to maintain circulation. Choice D: 90 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute would result in an incorrect compression-to-vent
Question 6 of 9
Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are most commonly caused by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rotational injury. Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are often caused by rotational forces that occur during accidents such as motor vehicle collisions or falls. These forces lead to the spine being twisted, causing separation of the vertebrae. Blunt trauma (A) can cause various spinal injuries but is not specific to flexion-distraction injuries. Seat belts (C) are designed to prevent spinal injuries by restraining the body during a collision. Gunshot wounds (D) can cause spinal cord injuries but are not commonly associated with flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine.
Question 7 of 9
R. R. is a 71-year-old female who presents with left lower quadrant pain that started out as cramping but has become more constant over the last day. She reports constipation over the last few days but admits that for as long as she can remember she has had variable bowel habits. Her vital signs are normal, but physical examination reveals some tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Which diagnostic test is most likely to support the leading differential diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct diagnostic test for the patient is a barium enema. This test is commonly used to evaluate the colon and rectum for conditions such as colonic obstruction, inflammatory bowel disease, or colorectal cancer. In this case, the patient's presentation of left lower quadrant pain with a history of constipation and variable bowel habits suggests a possible colonic obstruction, which can be visualized through a barium enema. A CT scan with contrast may be helpful in some cases but may not provide as clear a view of the colon as a barium enema. CBC with WBC differential is a general blood test and would not directly aid in diagnosing colonic issues. Colonoscopy, while a valuable tool for evaluating the colon, may not be suitable for this patient initially due to the acute nature of the presentation and the need to first rule out a potential obstruction.
Question 8 of 9
A client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if their previous delivery was via spontaneous vertex delivery. This indicates that the client has successfully given birth vaginally before, reducing the risk associated with a vaginal birth after cesarean section. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Cephalopelvic disproportion was the reason for the previous C/S, indicating potential difficulty in vaginal delivery. B: Confirmation of a multiple pregnancy does not impact the client's eligibility for a vaginal birth after cesarean section. C: Previous cesarean section does not necessarily mean the client is fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section.
Question 9 of 9
Persistent nausea and vomiting related to pregnancy is indicative of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperemesis gravidarum. This condition is characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, dehydration in pregnancy. It is more severe than typical morning sickness (choice A) and is not specific to multiple gestation (choice B). Hypertensive disorders (choice D) typically present with high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema, not just nausea and vomiting. Hyperemesis gravidarum requires medical intervention due to potential complications from dehydration and malnutrition.