Placenta praevia is also referred to as unavoidable haemorrhage because

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because placenta praevia can lead to severe bleeding during childbirth, posing high risks to both the mother and the baby. This condition occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix dilates during labor. Choice A is incorrect because bleeding in placenta praevia is not related to the segment preparing for labor. Choice B is incorrect as bleeding is primarily due to the abnormal placement of the placenta, not from pathological processes. Choice C is incorrect as bleeding can occur before 37 weeks in cases of placenta praevia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice in managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that reduces neuronal excitability and neuromuscular transmission, thus preventing seizures. It also helps in lowering blood pressure and preventing complications. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (B) is used for calcium deficiency, not eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to correct acidosis, not for managing eclampsia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clonic stage. In eclampsia, the clonic stage is characterized by violent contraction and relaxation of the whole body due to generalized seizures. During this stage, rhythmic jerking movements occur. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Coma stage - In this stage, the individual is unconscious and not experiencing violent body movements. C: Premonitory stage - This stage includes warning signs like headache and visual disturbances, but not the violent body movements seen in eclampsia. D: Tonic stage - This stage involves sustained muscle contractions without relaxation, unlike the alternating contraction and relaxation seen in the clonic stage of eclampsia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. This is because BCG vaccination for newborns is recommended even if the mother is smear-negative for tuberculosis, as it helps protect the newborn from severe forms of TB. Smear status of the mother does not impact the need for BCG vaccination in the neonate. Choice B is incorrect as it falsely implies that BCG should not be given in this scenario. Choices C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any information.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oligohydramnios. Oligohydramnios, which is low levels of amniotic fluid, can lead to reduced cushioning in the uterus, allowing the fetus to assume abnormal positions like shoulder presentation. Macerated fetus (choice A) is related to prolonged fetal death, not shoulder presentation. Postdates pregnancy (choice B) may increase the risk of complications but is not a direct cause of shoulder presentation. Placenta abruption (choice D) is the premature separation of the placenta, which can lead to fetal distress but is not specifically linked to shoulder presentation.