Pick out the sympatholythic drug:

Questions 213

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Effects of Pharmacological Treatments on Clients Across a Lifespan Questions

Question 1 of 5

Pick out the sympatholythic drug:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Guanethidine is a sympatholytic drug that inhibits norepinephrine release from sympathetic nerve terminals. Labetalol is an alpha- and beta-blocker, Prazosin is an alpha-1 blocker, and Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 agonist, but Guanethidine specifically depletes catecholamines, making it the best fit.

Question 2 of 5

Tick the diuretic agent having a potent and rapid effect:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that exerts a potent and rapid effect by acting on the loop of Henle in the kidney, leading to significant diuresis. Now, let's examine why the other options are incorrect: B) Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts on the distal tubule and collecting ducts. It does not have a rapid onset of action like furosemide. C) Dichlothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that acts on the distal convoluted tubule. While it is effective in treating hypertension and edema, it is not as potent or rapid as furosemide. D) Indapamide is another thiazide-like diuretic that acts on the distal convoluted tubule. It is not known for its rapid onset of action compared to furosemide. Educational Context: Understanding the differences in diuretic agents and their mechanisms of action is crucial for healthcare professionals when managing patients with conditions such as heart failure, hypertension, or renal disease. Knowing which diuretic to use based on the clinical scenario and the desired effect (potent and rapid vs. long-term maintenance) is essential for providing effective patient care. By grasping the pharmacological properties of diuretics, healthcare providers can make informed decisions to optimize patient outcomes and minimize potential adverse effects. This knowledge is particularly vital when treating clients across the lifespan, where drug efficacy and safety considerations may vary based on age, comorbidities, and other factors. In conclusion, furosemide stands out among the options as the diuretic agent with a potent and rapid effect due to its mechanism of action in the loop of Henle. Understanding the nuances of different diuretics empowers healthcare professionals to tailor treatment regimens to individual patient needs effectively.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following antianginal agents is a calcium channel blocker?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Nifedipine. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used as an antianginal agent. Calcium channel blockers work by inhibiting the influx of calcium ions into cardiac and smooth muscle cells, leading to vasodilation and decreased cardiac workload, which helps in reducing angina symptoms. Option A) Nitroglycerin is a nitrate used for the acute relief of angina symptoms by dilating blood vessels to increase oxygen supply to the heart. It works through a different mechanism than calcium channel blockers. Option B) Dipyridamole is a coronary vasodilator with antiplatelet effects, often used in cardiac stress testing. It does not belong to the calcium channel blocker class. Option C) Minoxidil is a potent vasodilator primarily used for hypertension and male pattern baldness. It does not act as a calcium channel blocker. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacological treatments for angina is crucial for healthcare providers to effectively manage patients with cardiovascular conditions. Knowing the mechanisms of action of different antianginal agents helps in selecting the most appropriate treatment based on the patient's condition and comorbidities. This knowledge ensures safe and effective care for clients across the lifespan.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following statements concerning potassium channel openers is true?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement, option D, regarding potassium channel openers is true because these agents work by increasing the permeability of potassium channels, specifically ATP-dependent K channels. This action leads to the stabilization of the membrane potential of excitable cells near the resting potential. By doing so, potassium channel openers help regulate the excitability of cells and can have various physiological effects. Option A is incorrect because potassium channel openers do not decrease transmembrane calcium current in smooth muscle; instead, they primarily affect potassium channels. Option B is also incorrect as it describes actions more closely related to other types of medications, such as vasodilators that work through nerve stimulation. Option C is inaccurate because the beneficial effects of potassium channel openers are not primarily related to hemodynamic effects but rather to their direct impact on cellular excitability. Understanding the mechanisms of action of pharmacological treatments on clients across the lifespan is crucial for healthcare professionals, particularly those working in areas like cardiology, neurology, and pharmacotherapy. Knowing how potassium channel openers work can help in selecting appropriate medications, understanding potential side effects, and monitoring therapeutic outcomes in patients of different ages and with various health conditions.

Question 5 of 5

Tick the group of drugs for treatment of shock with hypovolaemia (reduced circulating blood volume):

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of treating shock with hypovolemia (reduced circulating blood volume), the correct group of drugs is plasmoexpanders (Option C). Plasmoexpanders are used to increase the volume of the intravascular compartment by drawing fluid from the interstitial space into the bloodstream, thereby helping to restore circulating blood volume. This is crucial in addressing the underlying issue of hypovolemia in shock. Positive inotropic drugs (Option A) are used to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and are more suitable for conditions like heart failure, not specifically for hypovolemic shock. Vasoconstrictors (Option B) work by narrowing blood vessels, which can further reduce blood flow in a condition like hypovolemic shock where blood volume is already low. Analeptics and tonics (Option D) are not typically used in the treatment of hypovolemic shock. Analeptics are central nervous system stimulants and tonics are generally used for conditions like fatigue or weakness, which are not directly related to the management of shock with hypovolemia. Educationally, understanding the appropriate pharmacological treatments for different conditions is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide effective care. Applying the correct medication based on the pathophysiology of the condition ensures optimal outcomes for patients. It is important to differentiate between various drug classes and their specific indications to make informed decisions in clinical practice.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions